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The Cisco world has become so competitive and challenging. To say updated and meet the challenges of the market you have to learn new in-demand skills and upgrade your knowledge. With the Cisco 350-701 Certification Exam everyone can do this job nicely and quickly. The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) certification exam offers a great opportunity to validate the skills and knowledge.
Cisco 350-701 exam is an industry-standard certification that tests the knowledge and skills of IT professionals on the principles of implementing and operating Cisco Security Core Technologies. 350-701 exam is designed to assess the individualโs ability to manage complex security solutions, identify network vulnerabilities, and implement security policies to mitigate security threats. 350-701 Exam is a core requirement for the CCNP Security certification and is ideal for IT professionals who want to advance their careers in security.
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The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) exam, coded as 350-701, evaluates the candidates' expertise in the areas of network security, cloud security, content security, endpoint protection, and secure network access. 350-701 Exam is designed to assess the candidates' abilities to design, deploy, configure, manage, and troubleshoot security solutions that meet the industry's best practices and standards.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Why is it important to patch endpoints consistently?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Patching helps to mitigate vulnerabilities by applying fixes or updates to software or firmware that have known security flaws. Vulnerabilities can be exploited by cybercriminals to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the IT systems and data. Patching endpoints consistently reduces the risk of cyberattacks and data breaches by closing the gaps that attackers can use to gain unauthorized access or cause damage. Patching also improves the performance and functionality of the IT systems by addressing bugs or errors12.
Option B is the correct answer, as it explains the main benefit of patching endpoints consistently. Option A is incorrect, as patching does not necessarily reduce the attack surface of the infrastructure, which is the total number of possible entry points for an attacker. Patching only addresses the existing vulnerabilities in the software or firmware, but does not eliminate the attack surface itself. Option C is incorrect, as patching is not always required per the vendor contract, although some vendors may provide support or incentives for patching. Option D is incorrect, as patching does not allow for creating a honeypot, which is a decoy system that is intentionally left vulnerable to lure and trap attackers. References: Patch Management Overview, Challenges, and Recommendations. Patch Management Explained: Challenges, Best Practices & Steps.
NEW QUESTION # 123
For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs?
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The method of the CDP determines how the CRL is retrieved; some possible choices include HTTP, Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP), SCEP, or TFTP. HTTP, TFTP, and LDAP are the most commonly used methods. Although Cisco IOS software defaults to SCEP, and HTTP CDP is recommended for large installations using CRLs because HTTP can be made highly scalable.
NEW QUESTION # 124
Refer to the exhibit.
A site-to-site IKEv2 VPN between a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device with public IP address
203.0.113.10 and a third-party firewall with public IP address 198.51.100.20 is failing to establish at a logistics company. The engineer enables IKEv2 debugging on the FTD and captures the output. Which action must be performed to resolve the issue?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The debug shows that IKE_SA_INIT completed successfully and the peers agreed on AES-256, SHA-256, and DH Group 14. That proves a mutually acceptable Phase 1 proposal was selected, so changing the DH group or removing SHA-384 is unnecessary. The failure occurs later during IKE_AUTH, where the peer returns AUTHENTICATION_FAILED notification type 24. Because the displayed authentication method is a pre-shared key, the first corrective action is to verify that both peers use exactly the same key; capitalization, whitespace, or character differences change the calculated AUTH value. RFC 7296 defines the AUTH value as being derived from the shared secret and states that an AUTHENTICATION_FAILED notification prevents creation of the IKE SA. Replacing PSK authentication with certificates is not required to correct a PSK mismatch. IETF IKEv2 specification
NEW QUESTION # 125
What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cognitive-threat-analytics/at-a- glance-c45-736555.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 126
What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device tracking, remote view, and live troubleshooting using the included native remote desktop support?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Mobile device management (MDM) is a solution that allows organizations to monitor and manage mobile devices such as smartphones, tablets, and laptops. MDM provides features such as inventory and device tracking, remote view, live troubleshooting, remote device locking, device wipe, application management, certificate management, and self-service PIN changes. MDM can help organizations secure their devices, control access to corporate data, and enforce security policies on mobile endpoints. Cisco offers MDM solutions such as Cisco Meraki Systems Manager and Cisco Business Mobile app, which are cloud-based and integrated with other Cisco security products. References:
* Cisco Meraki Systems Manager
* Mobile Device Management in the Meraki Cloud
* What Is Endpoint Management?
* Device Management using Cisco Business Mobile App
NEW QUESTION # 127
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