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NEW QUESTION # 166
What does the user risk score enable a user to do?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A user risk score is an adaptive signal used to tune security policy around individual user exposure. It does not by itself prove compromise, but it helps administrators identify risky users and apply stronger monitoring, access restrictions, or control requirements. Option C (Configure stronger user-specific policies to monitor & control user-level risk exposure) is correct because the value of the score is operational: it supports stronger user-specific policies and risk-based monitoring.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Compare the user risk score with other companies to evaluate users vs other companies:
Benchmarking users against other companies would be an executive comparison metric. User risk score is used inside the tenant to tune user-level controls.
B). Determine whether or not a user is authorized to view unencrypted data: Access to unencrypted data is a data-handling and policy decision. User risk score measures user exposure and behavior risk; it is not a decryption authorization switch.
D). Determine if a user has been compromised: A high user risk score can indicate suspicious behavior, but it is not a definitive compromise verdict. Administrators use it to strengthen monitoring and policy first.
NEW QUESTION # 167
What is the maximum default frequency of device posture profile evaluation by Zscaler Client Connector?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Device posture must be re-evaluated regularly because endpoint state can change after access is granted. The maximum default frequency tested here is fifteen minutes, which gives Zscaler a relatively current view of compliance conditions. Option A (15 minutes) is correct because posture profile evaluation can occur every fifteen minutes by default.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B). 2 minutes: Two minutes would create much more frequent posture evaluation than the default maximum cadence. The tested default maximum frequency is fifteen minutes.
C). 5 minutes: Five minutes is more frequent than the default maximum posture-profile evaluation cadence.
The tested value is fifteen minutes.
D). 10 minutes: Ten minutes is still shorter than the default maximum posture-profile evaluation cadence. The correct default maximum is fifteen minutes.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Which attack type is characterized by a commonly used website or service that has malicious content like malicious JavaScript running on it?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A watering-hole attack compromises a legitimate website or service that the intended victims already trust and commonly visit. The attacker plants malicious active content, such as injected JavaScript or exploit code, so users are infected during normal browsing instead of being lured to an obviously suspicious site. The answer is Option A (Watering Hole Attack) because it specifically describes malware hosted on a commonly accessed service, which is the defining trait of this attack type.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B). Pre-existing Compromise: Pre-existing compromise means the target is already affected before the current event. A watering-hole attack is different: the attacker poisons a site the victims already visit.
C). Phishing Attack: Phishing starts with social engineering: fake messages, links, or login pages. The question describes a legitimate common website being seeded with malicious JavaScript.
D). Exploit Kits: Exploit kits automate exploitation after a victim reaches malicious content. They can be used inside an attack chain, but the scenario is naming the watering-hole delivery pattern.
NEW QUESTION # 169
A branch location must connect to Zscaler for web inspection. The underlay is trusted, the site requires a static egress IP mapped to the location, expected throughput is 700 Mbps, and high availability is not required.
Which tunnel approach and count meet these requirements with the least overhead?
Answer: B
Explanation:
One GRE tunnel is sufficient because the required 700 Mbps is below Zscaler's documented per-tunnel limit and the scenario does not require failover. Zscaler's GRE deployment best practices state that a GRE tunnel supports up to 1 Gbps when internal addresses are not behind NAT. The GRE self-provisioning guidance also explains that one static IP address can be mapped to a GRE tunnel. Because the underlay is trusted, GRE's lack of encryption is acceptable for this requirement and avoids IPSec encryption and rekey overhead. A single IPSec tunnel is unsuitable for 700 Mbps because Zscaler documents a lower per-public-source-IP limit for IPSec. Two tunnels add unnecessary configuration and routing complexity when high availability is explicitly excluded. Capacity, MTU, routing, and Service Edge reachability should still be validated before production use.
NEW QUESTION # 170
An administrator would like users to be able to use the corporate instance of a SaaS application. Which of the following allows an administrator to make that distinction?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirement is tenant-aware SaaS enforcement. ZIA Cloud Application Control can distinguish between the approved corporate instance of an application and a user's personal or unauthorized instance. This is stronger than simple URL filtering because the domain may be the same while the tenant, account, or application activity differs. Option B (Cloud application control) is correct because Cloud App Control is the ZIA control plane used to apply SaaS-specific rules, including tenant restrictions and sanctioned-versus- unsanctioned application decisions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Out-of-band CASB: Out-of-band CASB works through SaaS APIs to inspect or remediate content already sitting inside cloud applications.
C). URL filtering with SSL inspection: URL Filtering controls web destinations by category, URL, risk, and action such as allow, block, caution, or isolate.
D). Endpoint DLP: Endpoint DLP governs local device channels such as USB, print, clipboard, and files in use.
NEW QUESTION # 171
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