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| Certification Vendor: | CompTIA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam |
| Exam Number: | CAS-005 |
| Exam Price: | $512 - $544 USD |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Duration: | 165 minutes |
| Related Certifications: | CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Network+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA CySA+ |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Performance-based |
| Real Exam Qty: | Up to 90 |
| Available Languages: | Thai, English, Japanese |
| Passing Score: | Pass/Fail only, no scaled score |
| Recommended Training: | CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide CompTIA Official Training |
| Exam Registration: | CompTIA Official Registration Pearson VUE Registration |
| Sample Questions: | CompTIA CAS-005 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored or in-person at Pearson VUE authorized test centers |
| Pre Condition: | No mandatory prerequisites; Recommended: 10+ years of general IT experience, minimum 5 years of hands-on cybersecurity experience, equivalent knowledge to CompTIA Network+, Security+, CySA+, PenTest+, or Cloud+ |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.comptia.org/certifications/securityx |
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NEW QUESTION # 475
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect
Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
* Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
* Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
* Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
* Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
* "Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research
NEW QUESTION # 476
During a gap assessment, an organization notes that OYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization's resources. Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to best reduce the risk of OYOD devices? (Select two).
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
To reduce the risk of unauthorized BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) usage, the organization should implement Conditional Access and Network Access Control (NAC).
Why Conditional Access and NAC?
Conditional Access:
User-to-Device Binding: Conditional access policies can enforce that only registered and compliant devices are allowed to access corporate resources.
Context-Aware Security: Enforces access controls based on the context of the access attempt, such as user identity, device compliance, location, and more.
Network Access Control (NAC):
Device Configuration Requirements: NAC ensures that only devices meeting specific security configurations are allowed to connect to the network.
Access Control: Provides granular control over network access, ensuring that BYOD devices comply with security policies before gaining access.
Other options, while useful, do not address the specific need to control and secure BYOD devices effectively:
A: Cloud IAM to enforce token-based MFA: Enhances authentication security but does not control device compliance.
D: PAM to enforce local password policies: Focuses on privileged account management, not BYOD control.
E: SD-WAN to enforce web content filtering: Enhances network performance and security but does not enforce BYOD device compliance.
F: DLP to enforce data protection capabilities: Protects data but does not control BYOD device access and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 477
A software company deployed a new application based on its internal code repository Several customers are reporting anti-malware alerts on workstations used to test the application Which of the following is the most likely cause of the alerts?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure bundled libraries.
When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security, they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.
Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?
Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.
Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure, leading to potential security risks.
Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.
Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:
A: Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger anti-malware alerts.
C: Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically anti-malware alerts.
D: Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to anti-malware alerts.
NEW QUESTION # 478
After an incident response exercise, a security administrator reviews the following table:
Which of the following should the administrator do to beat support rapid incident response in the future?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Enabling dashboards for service status monitoring is the best action to support rapid incident response. The table shows various services with different risk, criticality, and alert severity ratings. To ensure timely and effective incident response, real-time visibility into the status of these services is crucial.
Why Dashboards for Service Status Monitoring?
Real-time Visibility: Dashboards provide an at-a-glance view of the current status of all critical services, enabling rapid detection of issues.
CentralizedMonitoring: A single platform to monitor the status of multiple services helps streamline incident response efforts.
Proactive Alerting: Dashboards can be configured to show alerts and anomalies immediately, ensuring that incidents are addressed as soon as they arise.
Improved Decision Making: Real-time data helps incident response teams make informed decisions quickly, reducing downtime and mitigating impact.
Other options, while useful, do not offer the same level of comprehensive, real-time visibility and proactive alerting:
A . Automate alerting to IT support for phone system outages: This addresses one service but does not provide a holistic view.
C . Send emails for failed log-in attempts on the public website: This is a specific alert for one type of issue and does not cover all services.
D . Configure automated isolation of human resources systems: This is a reactive measure for a specific service and does not provide real-time status monitoring.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
"Best Practices for Implementing Dashboards," Gartner Research
NEW QUESTION # 479
A company migrating to aremote work model requires that company-owned devices connect to a VPN before logging in to the device itself. The VPN gateway requires that a specific key extension is deployed to the machine certificates in the internal PKI. Which of the following best explains this requirement?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
This scenario describes anenterprise VPN setup that requires machine authenticationbefore a user logs in. The best explanation for this requirement is that theVPN client selects the appropriate certificate automaticallybased on the key extension in the machine certificate.
Understanding the Key Extension Requirement:
PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)issues machine certificates that include specific key usages such asClient AuthenticationorIPSec IKE Intermediate.
Key usage extensionsdefine how a certificate can be used, ensuring that onlyvalid certificates are selected by the VPN client.
Why Option B is Correct:
The VPNautomaticallyselects the correct machine certificate with the appropriate key extension.
The process occurswithout user intervention, ensuring seamless VPN authentication before login.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A (MFA requirement):Certificates used in this scenario are for machine authentication, not user MFA. MFA typically involves user credentials plus a second factor (like OTPs or biometrics), which isnot applicable here.
C (Wi-Fi connectivity before login):This refers topre-logon networking, which is a separate concept where devices authenticate to a Wi-Fi network before login, usually via 802.1X EAP-TLS. However, this question specifically mentions VPN authentication, not Wi-Fi authentication.
D (SSL VPN with certificates):While SSL VPNs do use certificates,this scenario involves machine certificates issued by an internal PKI, which are commonly used inIPSec VPNs, not SSL VPNs.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide: Section onMachine Certificate Authentication in VPNs NIST SP 800-53: Guidelines on authentication mechanisms RFC 5280: Internet X.509 Public Key Infrastructure Certificate and CRL Profile
NEW QUESTION # 480
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