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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Health Advocate
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>> Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Pass4sure Exam Prep <<
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NEW QUESTION # 175
A 3-year-old boy is brought to your office because his daycare teachers are concerned about his language development. His parents speak both English and French at home, and he can say around 15 words combined in both languages. His history reveals that he has minimal interest in playing with other children. Which one of the following is most appropriate?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A limited vocabulary (fewer than 50 words by age 2-3 years) and reduced social interaction (limited interest in peers) raise concern for autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Screening for ASD is the most appropriate next step.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Development and Behaviour:
"Red flags for autism include delayed language, limited social reciprocity, and poor peer interaction.
Screening should be initiated early when clinical signs are present."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Developmental Disorders:
"Candidates must identify key signs of ASD and initiate appropriate screening and early intervention." Multilingual households do not typically cause such delays (E is incorrect). ADHD (B) presents with attention
/hyperactivity issues, not language/social delay. Reassurance (A) is inappropriate. Neurology referral (C) may follow but is not first-line.
NEW QUESTION # 176
A 28-year-old woman presents to the office in great distress because she has no money for groceries or rent.
She is a single mother of a 7-year-old girl. She has a history of gambling disorder. She has felt unable to cope for the last 3 months and has started gambling again. Today, she is crying, and she shares that her boyfriend became violent with her yesterday. Which one of the following is the highest priority for assessment?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The highest priority is the immediate safety of the patient and her child. In the presence of domestic violence, risk assessment for harm or neglect must be conducted urgently, particularly since a child may be at risk.
Safety trumps psychiatric or social evaluations in triage.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Crisis and Risk Assessment" Section:
"When intimate partner violence (IPV) is disclosed, it is critical to assess immediate safety and consider mandatory reporting, especially when children are involved." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-6: Violence and Abuse):
"Candidates must assess for and respond to risk of harm in situations of domestic violence, especially when dependents are involved. This includes ensuring immediate safety and following legal obligations for child protection." Although the other concerns (e.g., gambling, depression, substance use, financial need) are valid, the presence of violence makes D the first and most urgent priority.
NEW QUESTION # 177
A previously well 2-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with difficulty breathing that has been gradually worsening over the last 24 hours. Her parents say she has a sore throat. On examination, you note that she appears ill. She has stridor and is in moderate respiratory distress, drooling and emitting a muffled voice. Vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 34/min, heart rate 160/min, temperature 40.2°C.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Retropharyngeal abscess is most likely because the child is toxic-appearing with very high fever (40.2°C), sore throat, drooling, muffled "hot potato" voice, and stridor with progressively worsening respiratory distress over about 24 hours. In toddlers, retropharyngeal lymph nodes can become infected following an upper respiratory or pharyngeal infection and form an abscess, causing posterior pharyngeal swelling that obstructs the airway and makes swallowing painful, leading to drooling. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and hoarseness, usually with low-grade fever; drooling and muffled voice suggest a deeper space infection rather than viral laryngotracheitis. Foreign body aspiration usually has sudden onset and often lacks fever.
Laryngomalacia is a chronic infant condition (not acute, febrile illness). Bronchiolitis causes wheeze/crackles rather than prominent stridor and drooling. MCCQE priorities are airway-first management (minimize agitation, be prepared for a difficult airway), then prompt IV antibiotics and urgent ENT assessment for possible drainage.
NEW QUESTION # 178
A 46-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with left-sided pleuritic chest pain that improves when she sits up and leans forward. Her medical history is unremarkable and she takes no medications.
Examination reveals a pericardial friction rub; the findings are otherwise normal. An electrocardiogram reveals diffuse ST segment elevation and PR interval depression. An echocardiogram reveals a small pericardial effusion. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient has classic acute pericarditis : pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward, a pericardial friction rub, diffuse ST-segment elevation with PR depression on ECG, and a small pericardial effusion on echocardiogram. MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing the characteristic clinical and ECG features that distinguish pericarditis from myocardial infarction (diffuse ST elevation rather than territorial changes).
First-line treatment for uncomplicated acute pericarditis is high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory therapy , such as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) or ibuprofen, often combined with colchicine to reduce recurrence risk.
ASA is particularly appropriate when ischemia is in the differential diagnosis.
Apixaban (anticoagulation) is not indicated and may worsen effusion. Pericardiocentesis is reserved for large effusions or cardiac tamponade. Levofloxacin is unnecessary without evidence of bacterial infection. Beta- blockers such as metoprolol do not treat pericardial inflammation.
Thus, high-dose acetylsalicylic acid is the most appropriate initial management for uncomplicated acute pericarditis.
NEW QUESTION # 179
A 32-year-old primigravid woman is receiving magnesium sulfate for tocolysis. Her pregnancy is at 26 weeks
' gestation. You suspect magnesium sulfate toxicity. Which one of the following is the first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Magnesium sulfate toxicity is dose-dependent. The earliest and most sensitive clinical sign is the loss of deep tendon reflexes (especially patellar), which occurs before respiratory depression or cardiac changes.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics Chapter:
"Toxicity from magnesium sulfate is progressive and typically presents first with loss of deep tendon reflexes.
Respiratory depression and cardiac arrest occur at higher serum levels. Regular monitoring of reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output is essential." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 83-3: Preterm Labour and Tocolysis):
"The candidate must recognize early signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity including areflexia and respiratory depression." Tachycardia (B), hypotension (C), and tachypnea (D) are not typical early signs. Oliguria (E) may be a risk factor for accumulation but is not the first sign of toxicity.
NEW QUESTION # 180
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