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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security | 28% | - Security fundamentals
|
| Software Troubleshooting | 23% | - Security-related troubleshooting
|
| Operating Systems | 28% | - OS installation and configuration
|
| Operational Procedures | 21% | - Backup and disaster recovery
|
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NEW QUESTION # 38
A user reports that after a recent software deployment to upgrade the Testing application, they can no longer use it. However, other employees can successfully use the Testing program.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information in each tab to verify the results of the deployment and resolve any issues discovered by selecting the:
First command to resolve the issue
Second command to resolve the issue
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
1st CLI Resolution
copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y
2nd CLI Resolution
regsvr32 msvcp100.dll
Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)
Why the COPY command is first
* The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing
* Other users can run the app # the DLL exists on another system
* The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:
* Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32
* The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts - both are enterprise-safe defaults This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.
Why REGSVR32 is second
* After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it
* regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system
* This ensures:
* The Testing application can properly call the runtime library
* The fix persists after reboot
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following describes an attack in which an attacker sets up a rogue AP that tricks users into connecting to the rogue AP instead of the legitimate network?
Answer: C
Explanation:
An evil twin attack involves an adversary configuring a rogue wireless access point with the same SSID and similar settings as a legitimate network. Unsuspecting users connect to this rogue AP, allowing the attacker to intercept traffic, capture credentials, and launch further attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A security administrator teaches all of an organization's staff members to use BitLocker To Go. Which of the following best describes the reason for this training?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
BitLocker To Go is a Microsoft encryption feature specifically designed for removable drives such as USB flash drives and external hard drives. It allows users to protect the data on these devices by requiring a password to decrypt the contents, thereby preventing unauthorized access in the event the device is lost or stolen.
A is correct because BitLocker To Go is directly tied to password-protecting removable media.
B and C are unrelated to BitLocker To Go; Secure Boot and VPN encryption are entirely different security layers.
D applies to BitLocker (not BitLocker To Go) and full disk encryption on internal drives using TPM.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast common security measures and tools.
Study Guide Section: Encryption technologies (BitLocker, BitLocker To Go)
NEW QUESTION # 41
A user wants to connect a retro gaming console to the internet so that they can participate in online gaming. In order for the console to work, the Wi-Fi connection must adhere to a WPA-protected broadcast. Which of the following is the best option for the user to implement?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best option is to create a lower-security network exclusively for the console. Many retro or legacy gaming consoles only support older Wi-Fi security standards such as WPA or even WEP, and they cannot connect to modern WPA2 or WPA3 networks. Downgrading the entire primary network would significantly weaken overall security, which is not recommended in any environment.
The Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that legacy devices often lack firmware support for modern encryption standards and should be isolated rather than integrated directly into secure networks. Creating a separate SSID with reduced security limits exposure while still allowing connectivity for the unsupported device.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz - All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that lowering security settings on a primary router-even temporarily-introduces unnecessary risk. Switching encryption modes back and forth can also cause configuration instability and expose the network during the downgrade window.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further reinforces the concept of network segmentation as a best practice. By creating a dedicated network for legacy or insecure devices, administrators reduce the attack surface and prevent lateral movement to sensitive systems.
Using a wired Ethernet adapter may not be supported by the console, and adding an older router introduces unmanaged vulnerabilities. Therefore, isolating the console on a separate, lower-security wireless network is the safest and most practical solution.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A technician verifies that a malware incident occurred on some computers in a small office. Which of the following should the technician do next?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Once an incident is confirmed, the immediate priority is containment. Isolating (quarantining) the infected machines prevents the malware from spreading to other systems or exfiltrating data, enabling safe analysis and remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 43
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