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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
|
| Topic 2: Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
|
| Topic 3: Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Handling and Investigation
|
| Topic 4: Security Operations | 34% | - Security Monitoring and Analysis
|
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NEW QUESTION # 81
A compliance analyst works with a management team to develop remediation plans following a recent red-team assessment of the organization's operational technology (OT) networks within an industrial facility. While the backbone of the OT network is based on modern, fully supported infrastructure, the OT components are outdated and vulnerable to a variety of attacks. Further mitigation is not possible from a logical controls perspective. Which of the following approaches is best for the organization to consider for ongoing risk mitigation efforts?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network segmentation isolates vulnerable systems from other parts of the network, reducing the ability of attackers to move laterally or reach critical systems. In environments where outdated operational technology cannot be easily patched or protected with additional logical controls, segmentation is an effective mitigation strategy because it limits exposure and confines potential compromises to smaller, controlled network zones.
NEW QUESTION # 82
An analyst reviews the following list of vulnerabilities:
The analyst determines that CVE-2023-8524 is the highest priority for remediation and should be patched immediately. Which of the following did the analyst use to determine the priority of remediation efforts?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The analyst used context awareness to prioritize remediation. Although CVE-2023-8524 does not have the highest CVSS score or the highest number of affected systems, it is weaponized and located on an external-facing asset. External exposure significantly increases the likelihood of exploitation and potential business impact, making it the highest-priority vulnerability to patch.
NEW QUESTION # 83
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is notified of an ongoing incident.
Which of the following explains why the CISO instructs the Chief Executive Officer not to discuss the incident over email?
Answer: A
Explanation:
During an active cybersecurity incident, responders must assume that systems associated with the compromise may no longer provide trustworthy confidentiality or integrity until their status has been established. If the incident could involve the organization's email infrastructure, discussing response strategy, investigative findings, affected assets, or containment actions through corporate email could unintentionally provide the attacker with intelligence about the organization's response.
Therefore, the email system may be compromised is the strongest explanation. Incident-response communication plans should define approved communication methods, relevant stakeholders, escalation paths, and alternative communication channels so responders can continue coordinating when ordinary enterprise systems are unavailable or untrusted. NIST's current incident-response guidance emphasizes integrating communication and stakeholder coordination throughout response activities.
Option C is too broad. Modern email commonly uses transport encryption, although encryption alone would not make a compromised mailbox or server trustworthy. Option D concerns public-relations coordination but does not explain why email itself should be avoided. Option A describes a specific gateway vulnerability that the scenario does not establish.
The core principle is out-of-band communication : when normal communication infrastructure may be under attacker control, responders should use a previously approved independent channel.
Study Guide Reference: Reporting and Communication # Incident Communications # Communication Plan
# Out-of-Band Communications # Stakeholder Coordination # Compromised Communication Channels.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role.
Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT & CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The attacker is attempting lateral movement because an already compromised identity is being used to move from one cloud environment or subscription into another. Lateral movement describes adversary activity intended to reach additional systems, services, accounts, or resources after an initial foothold has been established.
MITRE ATT & CK specifically includes cloud-oriented lateral movement. Its Lateral Movement tactic documents adversaries using valid accounts to access additional cloud services and resources within compromised environments. MITRE also documents cloud-role manipulation that may enable movement into additional accounts, demonstrating how identity and role relationships can become lateral-movement pathways in cloud architectures.
Privilege escalation would apply if the attacker were primarily attempting to obtain greater permissions within the current security context. Persistence concerns maintaining long-term access. Execution concerns running malicious code or commands. Credential access involves obtaining credentials or authentication material.
In this scenario, the attacker already possesses a compromised user role. The objective is to use that existing access to traverse a trust boundary and reach another isolated subscription. That movement between security domains is the decisive indicator of the Lateral Movement tactic.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # MITRE ATT & CK # Lateral Movement # Cloud Services # Valid Accounts # IAM Roles # Cross-Subscription Access.
NEW QUESTION # 85
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is requiring users to phase out a legacy system that no longer receives security updates because the system will be decommissioned soon.
Which of the following risk management strategies is the CIO using?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CIO is implementing risk avoidance because the organization is eliminating the activity or technology that creates the risk. The legacy system no longer receives security updates, so continued operation would maintain exposure to vulnerabilities that may eventually become impossible to remediate. By phasing out and ultimately decommissioning the system, the organization removes that source of risk instead of continuing to operate it under additional controls.
NIST recognizes acceptance, avoidance, mitigation, sharing, and transfer as established risk-response approaches. Avoidance differs from mitigation because mitigation would retain the legacy system while implementing controls that reduce its likelihood or impact-for example, segmentation, strict access controls, application allowlisting, or enhanced monitoring.
Risk acceptance would involve deliberately continuing to operate the system after management acknowledges and approves the remaining exposure. Risk transference would shift some financial or operational consequences to another party, such as through insurance or contractual arrangements.
The phrase "phase out" is the decisive indicator. The organization intends to stop using the risk-producing technology entirely, making avoidance the most precise classification.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Risk Management # Risk Responses # Avoidance # Mitigation # Acceptance # Transference # Legacy and End-of-Life Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 86
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