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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Application control rules - Policy assignment and targeting - Custom policy creation and modification - Default security policies overview - Exclusion configuration |
| Topic 2: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - Upgrade and patch management - Backup and recovery procedures - System monitoring and diagnostics - User management and role-based access - Log management and export |
| Topic 3: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Event analysis and investigation - Real-time threat blocking - Automated threat remediation - Incident response workflows - Forensic data collection |
| Topic 4: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - Management Platform architecture - Communication Manager and Cloud Console - Collector Agent components and functionality - FortiEDR core architecture overview |
| Topic 5: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Management Platform deployment - Collector Agent installation methods - Initial configuration and licensing - Communication Manager setup |
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NEW QUESTION # 35
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the investigation view shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows a green checkmark in the Exception column for the filezilla.exe event. In FortiEDR, an exception means a whitelist has been created for a specific flow/security-event pattern. The guide states that exceptions limit enforcement of a rule and that after an exception is defined, identical new events are no longer triggered. It also explains that past security events display an icon indicating that an exception has been defined for them.
The exhibit also shows the event flow ending in filezilla.exe with a red highlighted activity and a blocked symbol. In the Incidents/Investigation workflow, FortiEDR represents blocked policy violations as security events, and the guide explains that FortiEDR can enforce policy by blocking malicious connection establishment requests to prevent exfiltration. It also states that Block means the malicious exfiltration or file- changing attempt was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 37
A collector triggers a suspicious security incident that is initially flagged as potentially malicious. The environment is connected to the FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) for classification. How does FCS process the event for accurate classification? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) enriches and enhances system security by performing deep, thorough analysis and investigation about the classification of a security event. It determines the exact classification of security events with a high degree of accuracy.
The guide further explains that the FCS classification process is performed through data enrichment and enhanced deep analysis and investigation enabled by automated and manual processes . These processes may include intelligence services, static and dynamic file analysis, sandboxing, flow analysis through machine learning, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and more.
Therefore, FCS does not rely only on FortiGate firewall policies, local signatures, or raw Collector log correlation. It performs enriched cloud-based automated and manual analysis to classify the incident accurately.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 38
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the threat hunting event details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true?
(Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D .
The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target
. It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .
The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam's intended wording.
Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.
Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 39
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 40
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