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NEW QUESTION # 85
(Which of the following types of scripting can be executed on a web browser?)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Client-side. CompTIA DataSys+ explains that client-side scripting refers to code that is executed directly within the user's web browser, rather than on a backend server or operating system shell. The most common and widely recognized client-side scripting language is JavaScript, which runs natively in modern web browsers and is used to enhance interactivity, validate input, and dynamically update content on web pages.
Client-side scripts execute after a web page is delivered to the user's browser. This allows for immediate feedback, such as form validation, dynamic content updates, and interactive user interfaces, without requiring a round trip to the server. DataSys+ highlights client-side scripting as an important concept when discussing web applications that interact with databases, particularly because improper client-side controls can introduce security risks if not reinforced by server-side validation.
Option A, server-side scripting, runs on the web server rather than in the browser. Examples include PHP, Python, Ruby, and server-side JavaScript (such as Node.js). These scripts handle tasks like database queries, authentication, and business logic and are never executed in the browser itself. Option B, PowerShell, is a scripting and automation language used primarily in Windows environments for system and database administration tasks and cannot run inside a web browser. Option D, command-line scripting, refers to scripts executed in a terminal or shell environment, not within a browser context.
CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes the distinction between client-side and server-side execution models because of their impact on performance, security, and data handling. Understanding where code executes is critical for protecting databases from exposure and enforcing proper validation controls.
Therefore, the type of scripting that can be executed in a web browser is client-side scripting, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following should a company develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The document that a company should develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center is a disaster recovery plan. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its operations in the event of a disaster or disruption, such as fire, flood, earthquake, cyberattack, etc. A disaster recovery plan typically includes the following elements: - The objectives and scope of the plan - The roles and responsibilities of the staff involved - The identification and assessment of the risks and impacts - The strategies and procedures for restoring the critical functions and data - The resources and tools required for the recovery process - The testing and maintenance schedule for the plan A disaster recovery plan helps an organization to minimize the damage and downtime caused by a disaster, as well as to resume normal operations as soon as possible. The other options are either different types of documents or not specific to fire preparedness. For example, a deployment plan is a document that describes how a system or software will be installed or launched; a backup plan is a document that specifies how data will be copied and stored for backup purposes; a data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept and when it should be deleted or archived. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.4 Given a scenario, implement disaster recovery methods.
NEW QUESTION # 87
A database administrator needs to remove a redundant customer table from a database in order to streamline periodic reports. Which of the following commands is best for this task?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DROP TABLE command permanently removes the entire customer table and its data from the database, streamlining reports and eliminating redundancy.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following is a result of an on-path attack on a system?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent. An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users' personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following statements best classifies a rollback in a database?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A rollback is a Transaction Control Language (TCL) command used to undo changes made during a transaction, ensuring database integrity by reverting to a previous stable state.
NEW QUESTION # 90
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