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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Security Architecture and Defense Design | - Enterprise security architecture design
| |
| Topic 2: Security Data Management | 20% | - Security data integration strategies
|
| Topic 3: Security Operations Strategy | - Security operations planning
| |
| Topic 4: Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis | 5% | - Adversary modeling and emulation
|
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NEW QUESTION # 103
A security architect is working with their cloud architect peer to enable additional controls in the non-production cloud environment. During testing, it is shown that the implementation of four of these controls will have a significant cost associated with them. Which of the following actions needs to be done before presenting their findings to the CISO?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before presenting to the CISO, the architect should understand why each control is required, what risk it reduces, and whether the expected security and operational benefit justifies the cost.
This allows leadership to make an informed decision based on risk, value, and business impact rather than cost alone.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A security architect is designing a new enterprise network for an EU-based company subject to GDPR. Which of the following architectural strategies best supports GDPR's principles of data minimization, access control and privacy by design?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Segmentation supports GDPR-aligned architecture by limiting access to personal data based on role, business need, and processing purpose. This helps enforce least privilege, reduce unnecessary data exposure, and apply privacy by design across systems that store or process regulated personal information.
NEW QUESTION # 105
In a CI/CD pipeline, long-running SAST/DAST security scans often have which of the following effects?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Long-running SAST and DAST scans can slow the CI/CD workflow and create friction for developers. When security checks delay builds or deployments too much, developers may try to bypass, defer, or work around those controls, reducing the effectiveness of the security program.
NEW QUESTION # 106
A security architect is tasked with implementing a Zero Trust architecture monitoring strategy. Which data sources are MOST critical to ingest into Splunk to monitor the continuous verification of identities and devices?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zero Trust security models are built on the principle of continuous verification of user identities, device health, and access context before granting access. Therefore, IAM logs, MFA logs (identity verification), and EDR telemetry (device posture/health) are the most critical data sources to monitor the core pillars of a Zero Trust architecture.
NEW QUESTION # 107
An organization wants to integrate a third-party Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) with Splunk Enterprise Security to automatically download malicious IP addresses and domain names. Which Splunk ES framework should be utilized for this purpose?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Threat Intelligence Framework in Splunk Enterprise Security is explicitly designed to aggregate, normalize, and manage threat intelligence feeds from various internal and external sources (including third-party TIPs via STIX/TAXII, REST APIs, or flat files) and use them to identify malicious indicators in the environment.
NEW QUESTION # 108
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