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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Management
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
|
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NEW QUESTION # 191
A 78-year-old man, who is accompanied by his eldest son, presents for follow-up of his chronic kidney disease and neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease. He is married and has 4 children. His creatinine clearance has slowly deteriorated over the last few years and has reached the stage where you are considering starting renal replacement therapy. After your discussion, it is clear that the patient, his son, and his wife want to start dialysis. Based on your assessment, it is clear that he does not understand the information you have relayed to him. You inform the patient that you believe he is incapable of making this decision and he agrees.
His son would prefer not to start dialysis as he is concerned about the impact this would have on his father's quality of life. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient has been assessed as incapable of making the decision regarding dialysis. MCCQE ELOM objectives emphasize that when a patient lacks decision-making capacity, treatment decisions must be made by a legally authorized substitute decision-maker (SDM) according to provincial/territorial hierarchy. The appropriate next step is to determine whether a formal SDM has been appointed (e.g., power of attorney for personal care) or identify the legally ranked default SDM.
Although the wife may often be the default SDM, this depends on jurisdiction and whether a formal representative has been designated. It is inappropriate to automatically follow the son's wishes, as he may not be the legal SDM. Nor should the physician impose their own recommendation without engaging the proper decision-making process. A large family meeting may be helpful later but does not replace identifying the legally authorized decision-maker.
Once identified, the SDM must make decisions based on the patient's prior capable wishes or, if unknown, the patient's best interests. Properly establishing the SDM ensures ethical and legal compliance in incapacity situations.
NEW QUESTION # 192
A 67-year-old man underwent his first endoscopy. He has long-term reflux and heartburn, treatedintermittently with antacids. Biopsies of the distal esophagus reveal Barrett epithelium. Which one of the following is most important in determining the frequency of surveillance endoscopy?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important factor in determining the surveillance interval in Barrett esophagus is the presence and grade of dysplasia (e.g., none, low-grade, high-grade). High-grade dysplasia requires more frequent monitoring or intervention due to the risk of progression to esophageal adenocarcinoma.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, Barrett Esophagus:
"Surveillance intervals depend on histologic findings. No dysplasia: q3-5 years; low-grade: q6-12 months; high-grade: consider endoscopic resection or ablation." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology:
"Candidates must identify the risk of progression in Barrett esophagus and apply appropriate surveillance strategies based on dysplasia." Length of the segment (A) may influence risk but not surveillance frequency alone. Other options (B, C, E) are less determinative.
NEW QUESTION # 193
A 35-year-old maintenance worker presents to your office because he thinks he has been exposed to asbestos and is afraid of developing asbestosis. He has no respiratory symptoms and is a non-smoker. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In any suspected occupational exposure, the first step is a detailed occupational history to assess the nature, intensity, and duration of the exposure. This determines whether surveillance or further testing is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory Medicine, "Occupational Lung Diseases" Section:
"When a patient presents with concerns about exposure to occupational hazards such as asbestos, detailed history is essential. Ask about job tasks, duration of exposure, use of personal protective equipment, and prior workplace assessments." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-2: Environmental and Occupational Health):
"Candidates must be able to obtain a detailed environmental and occupational history and determine the risk of exposure before ordering investigations." Ordering a chest radiograph (B) or PFTs (E) without confirming meaningful exposure is premature. Referral to a specialist (D) and reassurance (A) come only after the exposure risk is assessed.
NEW QUESTION # 194
A 69-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of a painful right knee. On history, he denies any trauma or similar previous episodes. Examination reveals effusion of the right knee that is warm to the touch. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step in evaluating a new, hot, swollen joint is arthrocentesis to rule out septic arthritis and crystal arthropathy. Joint aspiration provides fluid for microscopy, culture, and crystal analysis, which guides definitive diagnosis and treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, Monoarthritis:
"Joint aspiration is the most important first step in evaluating monoarthritis. Septic arthritis must be ruled out before initiating any therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:
"Candidates should perform joint aspiration in the presence of acute monoarthritis to differentiate between septic arthritis, gout, and other causes." Radiography (A) and serum uric acid (B) do not establish cause acutely. Empiric antibiotics (D) and NSAIDs (E) should only be started after ruling out septic arthritis.
NEW QUESTION # 195
While covering for a colleague away on holidays, you receive the following laboratory results for one of her patients, a 24-year-old woman:
White blood cell count: 10 × 10#/L (4-10)
Hemoglobin: 80 g/L (123-157)
Mean corpuscular volume: 76 fL (80-100)
Platelet count: 150 × 10#/L (130-400)
You have arranged a follow-up appointment for the patient with your colleague. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
These results show a significant anemia (Hb 80 g/L) with microcytosis (MCV 76 fL) and otherwise preserved cell lines (WBC at the upper end of normal; platelets normal). MCCQE objectives emphasize using CBC patterns to classify anemia and prioritize common causes. In a young woman, the most likely cause of microcytic anemia is iron deficiency , most often due to menstrual blood loss and/or inadequate iron intake, and it can be severe.
Leukemia and myelodysplasia typically present with abnormalities in multiple cell lines (e.g., leukocytosis with blasts or cytopenias) and are less consistent with an isolated microcytic anemia and normal platelets.
Anemia of chronic disease is usually normocytic or mildly microcytic and is less likely to produce such a low hemoglobin without an obvious chronic inflammatory condition. Thalassemia trait classically has marked microcytosis with relatively preserved hemoglobin (often only mild anemia) and is suggested by a lifelong history and family/ethnic background. The next clinical step (at follow-up) would be iron studies (ferritin first) and assessment for bleeding sources.
NEW QUESTION # 196
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