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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Exam Price:USD 499
Real Exam Qty:100
Related Certifications:CPC-A
Exam Format:Multiple Choice
Available Languages:English
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Certificate Validity Period:2 Years (requires continuing education to maintain)
Passing Score:70%
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online (Online Proctored or In-Person at Testing Centers)
Pre Condition:None required for exam (though AAPC recommends medical terminology/anatomy training)
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 2
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 3
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 4
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 5
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 6
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 7
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 8
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 9
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 10
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 11
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q150-Q155):

NEW QUESTION # 150
A patient complains of tarry, black stool, and epigastric tightness. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is recommended to evaluate the source of the bleeding. The endoscope is inserted orally. The esophagus appears normal on scope insertion. No evidence of bleeding in the stomach. The scope is then passed into the duodenum, where a polyp is found and removed with hot biopsy forceps. No evidence of bleeding post procedure.
What CPT code is reported?

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 151
A patient has squamous cell carcinoma lesions destroyed with cryosurgery:
0.6 cm right dorsal foot
2.0 cm left dorsal foot
What CPT coding is reported?

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is destruction of malignant lesions (SCC).
17261 = Malignant lesion destruction, trunk/arms/legs, 0.6-1.0 cm
17262 = Same location, 1.1-2.0 cm
Feet are included in trunk/arms/legs.
Therefore, 17262, 17261 is correct.


NEW QUESTION # 152
Which one of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code for diabetes is never sequenced first?

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 153
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What CPT codes are reported?

Answer: A

Explanation:
35875 = Thrombectomy, femoral-popliteal artery
RT = Right side
75710-26 = Angiography, extremity, unilateral, professional component


NEW QUESTION # 154
A patient undergoes right thyroid lobectomy for malignancy and removal of a suspicious parathyroid gland.
What CPT codes are reported?

Answer: C

Explanation:
60220 = Total lobectomy, unilateral thyroid
60500 = Parathyroidectomy (single gland)
Modifier -59 is appropriate to indicate a distinct procedure


NEW QUESTION # 155
......

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