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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Response
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Communication
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Response Processes
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Security Operations and Architecture
|
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NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following describes the reason Zero Trust should be followed on cloud-based architecture designs?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zero Trust reduces the attack surface by enforcing least-privilege access, continuous verification, and strict segmentation of resources. In cloud environments, this limits the ability of attackers to move laterally or gain broad access if a user account, device, or workload is compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A binary file that might contain malicious code is hosted on an isolated machine. An analyst wants to quickly detect the malicious code. Which of the following should the analyst use?
Answer: A
Explanation:
YARA scans files locally for patterns and signatures associated with known malware. It is appropriate for an isolated system, whereas VirusTotal requires uploading or querying the file online.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A security operations center (SOC) manager reviews a document signed by the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), the sales director, and a customer to decide whether a contract breach occurred.
Which of the following best describes the document that includes key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A service-level agreement (SLA) formally establishes measurable service expectations between a provider and a customer. These expectations commonly include availability targets, response times, resolution times, service quality thresholds, escalation conditions, reporting requirements, and other measurable performance indicators. NIST describes an SLA as a document that specifies technical performance promises and how performance or disputes will be handled. NIST security-control guidance also notes that service-level agreements can define performance expectations and measurable outcomes.
That makes an SLA the appropriate document when management needs to determine whether contractual performance requirements were violated. KPIs contained in the agreement provide objective measures against which actual service performance can be compared.
TTPs describe adversary behavior and have no contractual purpose. A return-on-investment report evaluates financial effectiveness rather than service obligations. A risk management plan describes how organizational risks will be identified and treated. A memorandum of understanding records cooperation or intent between parties, but it typically does not provide the detailed operational performance guarantees associated with an SLA.
The clues are customer, signed agreement, contractual breach, and measurable KPIs -all of which strongly identify a service-level agreement.
Study Guide Reference: Reporting and Communication # Service-Level Agreements # KPIs # Contractual Requirements # Performance Metrics # Compliance and Escalation.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A company's Zero Trust network requires reauthentication with MFA every two hours. Which of the following is an advantage of this architecture?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Requiring MFA reauthentication every two hours limits the duration of a user's authenticated session. If an attacker obtains valid credentials or hijacks an active session, the attacker will have only a limited window of access before reauthentication is required, reducing the potential impact of compromised credentials.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:
Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The analyst should first establish a legal hold because the suspected breach involves personnel records and evidence that may become relevant to regulatory, disciplinary, civil, or other legal proceedings. A legal hold prevents potentially relevant information from being deleted, overwritten, modified, rotated out under normal retention schedules, or otherwise destroyed before the organization's legal and investigative obligations are understood.
Preservation must precede destructive or potentially evidence-altering actions. NIST describes digital forensics as retrieving, storing, and analyzing electronic information while ensuring that evidence is captured reliably without alteration. RFC 3227 similarly emphasizes preserving evidence, following proper collection procedures, documenting handling, and maintaining chain of custody.
Log correlation and timeline construction are important investigative activities, but they should occur after preservation requirements have been established. Resetting credentials may subsequently be required for containment, but the scenario first raises an evidence-preservation obligation. Restoring files from backup would be especially premature because it could alter timestamps, overwrite artifacts, or otherwise complicate forensic analysis.
The examination principle is therefore preserve first when legal implications are reasonably foreseeable; analyze and remediate afterward under controlled procedures .
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Evidence Acquisition # Legal Hold # Evidence Preservation # Chain of Custody # Timeline Analysis # Regulatory/Legal Considerations.
NEW QUESTION # 27
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