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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 2
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 3
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 4
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 5
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 6
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 7
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 8
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 9
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 10
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 11
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 12
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 13
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 14
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 15
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 16
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 17
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 18
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 19
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q394-Q399):

NEW QUESTION # 394
Day 1 - A provider admits the patient to observation care for type 2 diabetes mellitus with hyperglycemia. The provider orders a HbA1c, a urine (microalbumin), and kidney function lab tests.
Blood sugar is high and poorly controlled. The provider discusses the case with the patient's endocrinologist. The provider prescribes an IV insulin drip, along with SQ insulin and keeps the patient in observation overnight.
Day 2 - Patient is in observation care and the provider orders a blood glucose test. The patient's glucose levels have improved. The provider places an order for the dietitian to see the patient.
Provider
documents spending a total time of 25 minutes with the patient.
Day 3 - Patient has a blood glucose test. The patient's glucose level is back to normal. The provider documents spending 15 minutes with the patient. The provider discharges the patient.
What E/M coding is reported by the physician for the patient in observation care?

Answer: A

Explanation:
For a patient in observation care, selecting the correct E/M codes requires evaluating each day's service level and the provider's documentation.
Day 1: The patient was admitted for observation, and the physician prescribed IV and SQ insulin, noting diabetes with hyperglycemia requiring complex management. The CPT code 99235 is appropriate here because it represents an initial observation or inpatient care for patients with high-complexity medical decision-making (MDM), which aligns with the patient's unstable glucose and the management requirements.
Day 2: The patient's glucose levels improved, and the provider documented spending 25 minutes with the patient in continued observation care. Since this is an established patient with continued observation, 99231 applies here, indicating subsequent observation care with low MDM complexity.
Day 3: The provider documented spending 15 minutes with the patient, whose glucose levels normalized, and then discharged the patient from observation care. Code 99238 is used for a discharge from observation care and is selected based on discharge times under 30 minutes.
These codes were selected based on CPT guidelines for observation care and the provider's time-based documentation. This matches the medical decision complexity documented per the case and code descriptions available for observation care management.


NEW QUESTION # 395
A patient is having a thyroidectomy for malignancy on the right lobe. During the procedure, a lesion was found on the left lower side of the parathyroid gland and is suspected for malignancy.
The total right lobe of the thyroid and the parathyroid gland are removed.
What is the CPT codes are reported for this encounter?

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The patient underwent a thyroidectomy for malignancy in the right lobe, as well as the removal of the parathyroid gland due to a suspected malignant lesion.
CPT Code 60505 is for the parathyroidectomy with exploration of parathyroid glands and is appropriate for the removal of the parathyroid gland due to a suspected malignancy.
CPT Code 60220 represents a thyroid lobectomy (total removal of one lobe of the thyroid), which applies to the removal of the right thyroid lobe in this case.
2. Modifier 59:
Modifier 59 is added to 60220 to indicate that the thyroid lobectomy is a distinct procedure from the parathyroidectomy, performed in a separate anatomical site during the same surgical session.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 60500 (in options A and C) is for a parathyroid exploration only, not including the actual removal of the parathyroid gland, so it does not apply here.
Code 60240 (in option D) is for a total thyroidectomy, which involves removal of the entire thyroid gland. Since only the right lobe was removed, 60220 (thyroid lobectomy) is correct.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
Per AAPC guidelines, 60505 is the appropriate code for parathyroidectomy procedures involving exploration or suspected malignancy, and 60220 with Modifier 59 accurately reflects the separate and distinct thyroid lobectomy procedure.
Thus, the correct answer is B. 60505, 60220-59.


NEW QUESTION # 396
A 67-year-old male presents with DJD and spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 The patient is placed prone on the operating table and, after induction of general anesthesia, the lower back is sterilely prepped and draped. One incision was made over L1-L5. This was confirmed with a probe under fluoroscopy. Laminectomies are done at vertebral segments L4 and L5 with facetectomies to relieve pressure to the nerve roots. Allograft was packed in the gutters from L1-L5 for a posterior arthrodesis. Pedicle screws were placed at L2, L3, and L4. The construct was copiously irrigated and muscle; fascia and skin were closed in layers.
Select the procedure codes for this scenario.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 397
According to the Application of Cast and Strapping CPTguidelines, what is reported when an orthopedic provider performs initial fracture care treatment for a closed scaphoid fracture of the wrist, applies a short arm cast, and the patient will be returning for subsequent fracture care?

Answer: B

Explanation:
For initial fracture care of a closed scaphoid fracture, code 25622 is used, which includes treatment and initial casting. The application of the cast is part of the fracture care and is not reported separately. CPTguidelines specify that casting or strapping performed as part of the fracture care is included in the fracture care code.
References: AMA's CPTProfessional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Musculoskeletal System.


NEW QUESTION # 398
An air bag deployed when a driver lost control of the car and crashed into a guardrail on the side of the highway. The driver suffers partial impact resulting in a skull fracture of the anterior cranial base. The fracture is diagnosed using the MRI scanner and cerebrospinal fluid is noted dripping via the sphenoid sinus into the right nasal passage. The patient requires a surgical nasal sinus endoscopy to assess and repair the injury.
What is the correct procedure and diagnosis coding combination to report this service?

Answer: C

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient requires a surgical nasal sinus endoscopy to repair a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak caused by a skull fracture that resulted in CSF draining into the nasal passage.
Code 31291 is the correct CPTcode for an endoscopic repair of a cerebrospinal fluid leak in the sphenoid sinus. This procedure code is appropriate because it specifically addresses surgical endoscopy for CSF leak repair in the sinus region.
Other codes provided, such as 31287 (nasal/sinus endoscopy with balloon dilation) and 31235 (nasal endoscopy with biopsy), do not match the description for surgical repair of a CSF leak and are therefore inappropriate for this case.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code S02.19XA is used to describe a fracture of the anterior cranial base, which fits the described injury of the skull with cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
External cause code V47.5XXA is used for motor vehicle accidents involving a car hitting a stationary object.
Y92.411 is the appropriate code to describe the location of the accident as a highway.
3. Exclusion of Additional Procedure Codes:
There is no need for a second endoscopy code or a modifier, as 31291 fully describes the endoscopic repair procedure for the CSF leak.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
Per AAPC guidelines, procedure codes for sinus endoscopy are chosen based on the specific type of intervention (e.g., CSF leak repair). The guidelines for ICD-10-CM stress including external cause codes and location codes for trauma cases related to motor vehicle accidents.
Thus, the correct answer based on CPTand ICD-10-CM coding standards is B. 31291, S02.19XA, V47.
5XXA, Y92.411.


NEW QUESTION # 399
......

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