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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Identity and Access Management | - Cloud IAM controls
|
| Topic 2: Risk Analysis and Risk Management | - Business continuity and disaster recovery
|
| Topic 3: Cloud Security Policies and Procedures | - Cloud application security policies
|
| Topic 4: Implementing Operational Capabilities, Procedures, and Training | - Security operations workflows
|
| Topic 5: Secure Cloud Service Models | - Cloud architecture security
|
| Topic 6: Legal, Compliance, and Ethical Concerns | - Compliance and governance
|
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NEW QUESTION # 140
Which cloud model allows an on-premises data center to use cloud bursting?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Hybrid cloud model allows an on-premises data center to use cloud bursting. Managing Cloud principles explain that cloud bursting enables organizations to handle spikes in workload demand by temporarily using public cloud resources while maintaining normal operations on private, on-premises infrastructure.
In a hybrid model, private and public cloud environments are integrated, allowing workloads to move seamlessly between them. When on-premises capacity is exceeded, additional processing power or storage is obtained from the public cloud and released once demand returns to normal. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost efficiency without requiring permanent over-provisioning of on-premises resources.
Public, private, and community clouds do not independently support cloud bursting from on-premises environments without hybrid integration. Therefore, the hybrid cloud model is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which requirement for cross-border data transfer is part of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?
Answer: A
Explanation:
GDPR requires a demonstration of an adequate level of data protection equivalent to GDPR standards for cross-border data transfers. Managing Cloud guidance explains that personal data may only be transferred outside the EU/EEA if the receiving country or entity ensures appropriate safeguards.
These safeguards may include adequacy decisions, standard contractual clauses, or binding corporate rules.
The goal is to ensure that personal data continues to receive the same level of protection regardless of where it is processed.
Formal consent alone is insufficient, and liability is not transferred exclusively to one party. Therefore, demonstrating adequate protection is the correct requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which release management term describes the process from code implementation to code review and approval to automated testing and then to production deployment?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Apipelinerefers to the structured process of moving code from development to production, encompassing implementation, review, automated testing, and deployment. In DevOps, this is known as a CI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment).
An iteration refers to a development cycle, a baseline represents a stable reference configuration, and a framework provides structure but not a deployment sequence. Only pipeline accurately captures the sequential, automated flow of code into production.
Pipelines enhance efficiency, consistency, and quality assurance by automating repetitive tasks, reducing human error, and ensuring that code changes are validated before reaching production. They are essential for modern cloud-native applications where rapid deployment is expected.
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which data source provides auditability and traceability for event investigation as well as documentation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Database logs provide auditability and traceability required for event investigation and documentation.
Managing Cloud principles state that logs capture detailed records of system activities, including access attempts, changes, transactions, and errors.
These logs allow security and operations teams to reconstruct events, identify unauthorized actions, and support forensic analysis. Database logs are essential for compliance, incident response, and continuous monitoring in cloud environments.
The other options do not provide the same level of chronological detail. Block and object storage hold data but do not record activity history, and database rows store current data states rather than event records.
Therefore, database logs are the correct source for auditability and traceability.
NEW QUESTION # 144
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) test requires the whole organization to participate in a scheduled disaster scenario without performing all of the actual tasks?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A dry run disaster recovery plan test requires broad organizational participation in a simulated disaster scenario without executing all production-impacting tasks. Managing Cloud principles explain that dry run testing validates coordination, communication, and procedural readiness while avoiding the risks of full operational disruption.
In a dry run, teams follow documented recovery steps conceptually or in limited execution, verifying that dependencies, responsibilities, and sequencing are correct. This approach provides higher fidelity than tabletop exercises, which are discussion-based, while avoiding the operational risks of full or parallel tests.
Parallel tests involve running recovery systems alongside production, and full tests execute all recovery actions, often causing service disruption. Therefore, a dry run offers a balanced method to test preparedness across the organization without full execution.
NEW QUESTION # 145
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