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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Certification Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Available Languages:English
Exam Format:Open-book (CPT, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS manuals allowed), Multiple Choice Questions
Real Exam Qty:150 multiple-choice questions
Exam Duration:340 minutes
Passing Score:Approximately 70%
Exam Price:$399–$499 USD (varies by membership and region)
Certificate Validity Period:2 years (renewal via Continuing Education Units - CEUs)
Related Certifications:Certified Coding Specialist (CCS)
Certified Inpatient Coder (CIC)
Certified Outpatient Coder (COC)
Recommended Training:AAPC CPC Practice Exams
AAPC CPC Training Course
Exam Registration:AAPC Exam Registration Portal
AAPC CPC Certification Page
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Available via online proctored exam or authorized testing centers (in-person).
Pre Condition:No formal prerequisite required. Recommended: 1–2 years of medical coding experience or completion of AAPC CPC training.
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc/

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 2
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 3
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 4
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 5
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 6
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 7
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 8
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 9
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 10
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 11
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 12
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 13
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 14
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 15
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 16
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q398-Q403):

NEW QUESTION # 398
A retinal specialist diagnoses type 2 diabetic mild nonproliferative retinopathy with macular edema, bilateral.
Diabetes is secondary to Cushing's syndrome and controlled with oral hypoglycemics. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
E08.3213 = Diabetes due to underlying condition with mild NPDR with macular edema, bilateral E24.9 = Cushing's syndrome (underlying condition) Z79.84 = Long-term use of oral hypoglycemic drugs Sequencing follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for secondary diabetes.


NEW QUESTION # 399
A patient is diagnosed with diabetic polyneuropathy.
Using ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what ICD-10-CM coding is reported?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Diabetic polyneuropathy is coded as E11.42, which indicates type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic polyneuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines direct that when a patient has both diabetes and polyneuropathy, a single combination code is used to capture both conditions.References: ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter
4: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases (E00-E89), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.a.6.


NEW QUESTION # 400
A 55-year-old female patient is diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma. She is having a resection of the affected kidney, a portion of the ureter, and rib resection, open aproach. The procedure is complicated due to a prior surgical procedure performed on the same kidney.
What CPT coding is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
50236 - Radical nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy and rib resection, open approach Includes:
Kidney removal
Partial ureter removal
Rib resection
Correct for renal cell carcinoma
Increased complexity due to prior surgery does not change CPT code, but may support modifier -22 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
50545 / 50548 - Laparoscopic/robotic nephrectomy
50225 - Simple nephrectomy (no ureter or rib resection)


NEW QUESTION # 401
View MR 002395
MR 002395
Operative Report
Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear
Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis
Procedures:
1) Rotator cuff repair
2) Biceps Tenodesis
3) Claviculectomy
4) Coracoacromial ligament release
Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.
Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.
Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors. Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 402
Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Office of Inspector General (OIG) provides compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for provider practices. This guidance is intended to help healthcare providers develop effective internal controls to monitor adherence to applicable statutes, regulations, and program requirements of Federal healthcare programs. The OIG issues various compliance guidelines and resources to assist organizations in establishing comprehensive compliance programs to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.
References: OIG Compliance Program Guidance, AMA's CPTProfessional Edition, and healthcare compliance resources.


NEW QUESTION # 403
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