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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Environment of Care | 10-13% | |
| Topic 2: Employee/Occupational Health | 10-13% | |
| Topic 3: Management and Communication | 10-13% | |
| Topic 4: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation | 22-26% | |
| Topic 5: Preventing/Controlling the Transmission of Infectious Agents | 17-19% | |
| Topic 6: Cleaning, Sterilization, Disinfection, Asepsis | 10-13% | |
| Topic 7: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes | 17-19% | |
| Topic 8: Education and Research | 6-9% |
CIC PDF questions can be read on various smart devices such as laptops, tablets, and smartphones. CBIC CIC PDF format is easier to download and use. Our CBIC CIC exam questions in PDF file can be printed, making it easy to study via a hard copy. To be recognized by CBIC CIC candidates must pass the CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam (CIC) exam and the registration fee for the exam is high, between $100 and $1000. Therefore, candidates will never risk their precious time and money.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A 2-yoar-old girl is admitted with a fractured tibia. At birth, she was diagnosed with congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following barrier precautions is appropriate for healthcare personnel caring for her?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Standard Precautions are sufficient for congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV), which means that gloves should be used when handling body fluids. CMV is primarily transmitted via direct contact with saliva, urine, or blood.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Wear masks and gloves - Masks are not necessary unless performing high-risk aerosol- generating procedures.
* C. No barrier precautions are needed - Gloves are required when handling bodily fluids to prevent transmission.
* D. Use gowns, masks, gloves, and a private room - CMV does not require Contact or Airborne Precautions.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
APIC guidelines state that CMV transmission is prevented using Standard Precautions, primarily with glove use for body fluid contact.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following correctly characterizes endovaginal ultrasound probes?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Certification Study Guide (6th edition) classifies endovaginal ultrasound probes as semi-critical devices because they come into contact with mucous membranes. As such, they require high-level disinfection (HLD) between patients, not sterilization, unless the manufacturer specifically requires it. This immediately eliminates option A, which incorrectly states sterilization is required.
Option B is incorrect because probe covers or sheaths do not eliminate the risk of contamination. Numerous studies referenced in infection prevention literature and reflected in the study guide demonstrate that probe covers can fail, tear, or leak, allowing microorganisms-including viruses-to contaminate the probe surface.
Therefore, HLD is required regardless of sheath use.
Option C is incorrect because critical items, by definition, enter sterile tissue or the vascular system.
Endovaginal probes contact mucous membranes only and are therefore not critical items under the Spaulding Classification System.
Option D is correct because endovaginal probes may be contaminated with human papillomavirus (HPV) prior to examination, even when probe covers are used. HPV is particularly concerning due to its resistance to some low-level disinfectants and its ability to persist on surfaces. The study guide highlights HPV as a key organism driving strict reprocessing requirements for these probes.
This question reflects a high-yield CIC exam concept: probe covers do not replace high-level disinfection, and viral contamination-including HPV-remains a significant risk.
Reference: Certification Study Guide (CBIC/CIC Exam Study Guide), 6th edition, Chapter 10: Cleaning, Sterilization, Disinfection, and Asepsis.
NEW QUESTION # 109
An infection preventionist is reviewing employee health immunization policies. What is the recommendation for tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) for a 55-year-old nurse who received all childhood vaccinations?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, "One dose of Tdap vaccine," as this is the recommended immunization for a 55-year- old nurse who received all childhood vaccinations. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), adults who have completed a primary series of childhood vaccinations (typically 5 doses of DTaP or DTP) should receive a single booster dose of Tdap if they have not previously received it. This is especially critical for healthcare personnel, such as a 55-year-old nurse, due to their increased risk of exposure to pertussis and the need to protect vulnerable patients (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). The Tdap vaccine, which protects against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, is recommended once between ages 11-64, with a preference for administration in early adulthood (e.g., 19-26 years) or as soon as feasible for older adults, including this 55-year-old nurse, to ensure immunity against pertussis, which wanes over time. For individuals aged 65 and older, Tdap is still recommended if not previously received, though Tdap is preferred over Td (tetanus and diphtheria only) for healthcare workers to address pertussis risk.
Option B (two doses of Tdap vaccine at least 14 days apart) and Option C (two doses of Tdap vaccine at least
28 days apart) are not standard recommendations for adults with a complete childhood vaccination history.
Multiple doses are typically reserved for individuals with incomplete primary series or specific high-risk conditions, not for this scenario. Option D (no additional vaccination is recommended) is incorrect because, even with a complete childhood series, a Tdap booster is advised for healthcare workers to maintain protection, especially given the nurse's occupational exposure risks (CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024).
After receiving the Tdap booster, a Td booster every 10 years is recommended to maintain tetanus and diphtheria immunity, but the initial Tdap dose is the priority for this nurse.
The recommendation for one Tdap dose aligns with CBIC's emphasis on evidence-based immunization policies to prevent transmission of vaccine-preventable diseases in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This ensures the nurse is protected and contributes to herd immunity, reducing the risk of pertussis outbreaks in the healthcare environment.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders, 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024. ACIP Recommendations for Tdap, 2011 (updated 2023).
NEW QUESTION # 110
At a facility with 10.000 employees. 5,000 are at risk for bloodbome pathogen exposure. Over the past five years, 100 of the 250 needlestick injuries involved exposure to bloodborne pathogens, and 2% of exposed employees seroconverted. How many employees became infected?
Answer: B
Explanation:
To determine the number of employees who seroconverted (became infected) after a needlestick exposure, we use the given data:
* Total Needlestick Injuries: 250
* Needlestick Injuries Involving Bloodborne Pathogens: 100
* Seroconversion Rate: 2%
Calculation:
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. 1: Incorrect calculation; 2% of 100 is 2, not 1.
* C. 5: Overestimates the actual number of infections.
* D. 10: Exceeds the calculated value based on given data.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Text, "Occupational Exposure and Seroconversion Risks".
* APIC Text, "Bloodborne Pathogens and Needlestick Injury Prevention"
NEW QUESTION # 111
Surgical site infection (SSI) data for the previous quarter reveal the following numbers. The surgeon with the highest infection rate is Doctor
Answer: D
Explanation:
To determine which surgeon has the highest surgical site infection (SSI) rate, use the following formula:
Since Dr. White has the highest SSI rate at 9.1%, the correct answer is D. White.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
SSI rates are calculated using infection count per total procedures and reported as percentage values.
NEW QUESTION # 112
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