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>> Certification CCDS-O Exam Dumps <<
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NEW QUESTION # 64
A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI practice, a common reason to query is a mismatch between what is being evaluated/treated and what is explicitly documented as an active condition for the encounter. A diagnostic chest x-ray aligns with the already-documented symptom (chronic cough), and a nutrition specialist referral aligns with an established diagnosis (obesity); neither inherently suggests an undocumented condition. Prescribing captopril aligns with documented HTN management, so it generally would not create documentation ambiguity requiring clarification (even though ACE inhibitors can be associated with cough, the plan alone does not establish a new reportable diagnosis). In contrast, ordering an HbA1c often signals assessment for diabetes, impaired glucose regulation, or monitoring of known diabetes. Because diabetes is not listed in the history provided, the HbA1c order may prompt the CDI specialist to query whether the provider is evaluating a suspected or existing glycemic disorder, whether there is a diagnosis such as prediabetes/diabetes being addressed, and to ensure the record clearly supports the medical necessity and any reportable condition.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outpatient CDI follow-up must balance responsiveness with confidentiality and professional standards. The most compliant approach is to communicate query-related information in a setting that protects protected health information and minimizes the risk of incidental disclosure. Discussing the query in a private room with the door closed supports timely clarification while maintaining privacy, avoiding conversations that could be overheard by patients, visitors, or staff who are not involved in the patient's care. Catching the provider in the hallway is faster but increases privacy risk because clinical details can be overheard, and it may also distract the provider in a high-traffic environment. Leaving a sticky note on the next patient's chart is inappropriate because it can be seen by others, may be misplaced, and can create compliance and medico-legal concerns (including mixing patients or leaving PHI unsecured). Waiting for the next scheduled meeting may be compliant but does not support a quick response, potentially delaying coding completion and data integrity. Therefore, a private discussion is both the quickest and most compliant option.
NEW QUESTION # 66
HCC category assignment methodology is similar to which of the following?
Answer: B
Explanation:
HCC category assignment is most similar to DRG diagnostic category logic because both methods take detailed diagnosis coding and map it into clinically meaningful groupings used for payment or performance methodologies. In CMS-HCC risk adjustment, ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes map to Condition Categories (HCCs) that represent disease groups with expected cost and complexity, and the model applies rules such as hierarchies (to avoid double-counting related conditions) and, in some cases, interactions (to recognize added impact when certain conditions coexist). DRGs similarly group diagnoses (and procedures in the inpatient setting) into a limited number of categories intended to reflect resource consumption and clinical similarity, rather than paying strictly on every individual code. By contrast, 835 is a remittance advice transaction standard (payment explanation) and has nothing to do with clinical grouping methodology. ICD-10-PCS and CPT are procedure/service coding systems; they describe interventions performed, not the risk-category grouping of diagnoses. Therefore, DRG diagnostic categories are the closest conceptual match to HCC assignment methodology.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following is the major difference between MIPS and APMs?
Answer: B
Explanation:
MIPS (Merit-based Incentive Payment System) is the default Medicare Quality Payment Program pathway for most eligible clinicians who are not sufficiently participating in an Advanced APM. In practice, if a clinician is MIPS-eligible and does not meet reporting requirements (or performs poorly), Medicare applies a negative payment adjustment-so "non-participation" effectively carries financial risk. APMs (Alternative Payment Models), especially Advanced APMs, are not automatically required for all clinicians; they are model-based arrangements (often tied to specific payers, contracts, patient populations, and risk/quality terms) that clinicians typically enter through organizational participation decisions. A key operational difference emphasized in outpatient CDI education is that MIPS performance hinges on accurate, complete documentation supporting quality measures and resource use across a broad clinician population, whereas APM participation depends on being in a qualifying model and meeting its participation/threshold rules. Therefore, MIPS functions as the required/default track with potential penalties, while APM participation is elective and model-dependent.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: "Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?"
Answer: D
Explanation:
This documentation presents a key outpatient CDI problem: hemiparesis is present, but two potential causal conditions are referenced-history of CVA and intracranial trauma-without clear linkage. In ICD-10-CM, correct reporting of hemiparesis often depends on identifying whether it is a late effect (sequela) of a prior stroke, a residual from traumatic brain injury, or due to another neurologic condition. Coding hemiparesis automatically as a CVA sequela (option A) would be assumptive and potentially inaccurate, because the clinician has not documented the relationship. Likewise, simply coding hemiparesis alone (option D) may miss important etiologic specificity, and coding both histories without clarifying the cause (option B) still leaves the main clinical ambiguity unresolved. Outpatient CDI best practice is to issue a non-leading query requesting provider clarification of the etiology/source of the hemiparesis (e.g., due to prior CVA, due to prior intracranial trauma, both, or other/undetermined). This supports accurate diagnosis reporting, appropriate sequencing, and defensible risk/quality representation.
NEW QUESTION # 69
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