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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness | 15% | - Security metrics and performance
|
| Topic 2: Advanced Incident Response and Management | 10% | - Incident response architecture
|
| Topic 3: Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps | 15% | - Security architecture at scale
|
| Topic 4: Security Data Management | 20% | - Data architecture design
|
| Topic 5: Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration | 15% | - Security control architecture
|
| Topic 6: Governance, Risk and Compliance | 10% | - Security governance
|
| Topic 7: Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis | 5% | - Threat intelligence architecture
|
| Topic 8: Advanced Automation and Orchestration | 10% | - SOAR architecture
|
>> Valid SPLK-5003 Exam Format <<
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NEW QUESTION # 121
How can an organization best improve its Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) metrics?
Answer: B
Explanation:
SOAR playbooks improve Mean Time to Respond by automating repeatable containment actions, such as isolating infected endpoints. This reduces manual response delays and helps responders act faster when confirmed threats require immediate containment.
NEW QUESTION # 122
A cybersecurity team is looking to leverage DevSecOps best practices. They want to test new security policies with a small subset of users while monitoring for unusual access patterns or failures. Which of the following techniques will support this? (Choose all that apply.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Canary releases allow new security policies to be introduced gradually to a small subset of users while monitoring for access issues, failures, or unexpected behavior. Automated rollbacks support this approach by quickly reverting the change if the monitored results show problems, reducing operational risk during policy deployment.
NEW QUESTION # 123
A security architect is working with their cloud architect peer to enable additional controls in the non-production cloud environment. During testing, it is shown that the implementation of four of these controls will have a significant cost associated with them. Which of the following actions needs to be done before presenting their findings to the CISO?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before presenting to the CISO, the architect should understand why each control is required, what risk it reduces, and whether the expected security and operational benefit justifies the cost.
This allows leadership to make an informed decision based on risk, value, and business impact rather than cost alone.
NEW QUESTION # 124
An organization wants to integrate a third-party Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) with Splunk Enterprise Security to automatically download malicious IP addresses and domain names. Which Splunk ES framework should be utilized for this purpose?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Threat Intelligence Framework in Splunk Enterprise Security is explicitly designed to aggregate, normalize, and manage threat intelligence feeds from various internal and external sources (including third-party TIPs via STIX/TAXII, REST APIs, or flat files) and use them to identify malicious indicators in the environment.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Alice is tasked with improving the organization's digital resilience, specifically focusing on the ability to recover from unplanned events that impact business operations. What should Alice's first project be to advance this initiative?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Digital resilience for unplanned events starts with a Business Continuity Plan because it defines how critical business operations will continue or recover during disruptions. Cross-functional collaboration is essential so recovery priorities, dependencies, roles, communication paths, and business impact requirements are understood before technical recovery testing or incident- specific playbooks are refined.
NEW QUESTION # 126
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