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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Reporting
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Threat Intelligence and Hunting
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Response Processes
|
>> CompTIA CS0-004 Reliable Exam Topics <<
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NEW QUESTION # 11
An analyst receives the following output:
Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?
Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP port 80 carries unencrypted HTTP traffic and is open on 10.203.20.15 and 10.203.20.10.
SSH on port 22 and HTTPS on port 443 are encrypted.
NEW QUESTION # 12
An analyst reviews a summarized vulnerability report through a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) reporting tool.
The following report correlates asset information from the configuration management database (CMDB) against detected vulnerabilities:
Which of the following servers should the analyst prioritize based on the target value, the risk, and the likelihood of exploitation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
PRODWEB-01 represents the highest remediation priority because vulnerability prioritization should combine asset value, vulnerability risk, and exploitation likelihood , rather than relying on severity alone.
A production web server is typically more exposed and operationally significant than a development endpoint, and the correlated CMDB information provides the business context required to determine whether exploitation would materially affect organizational operations.
A mature vulnerability-management process evaluates technical severity together with internet exposure, business criticality, existing controls, active exploitation, threat intelligence, and the availability of remediation. CISA specifically recommends using known exploitation evidence as an input into vulnerability prioritization and provides risk-based methodologies such as SSVC for determining appropriate response actions.
This explains why simply choosing the system with the numerically highest isolated vulnerability score would be inadequate. DEVWIN11-01, for example, may contain significant findings but carries lower production value. A control-system asset may have high business importance but can present different exposure and exploitability conditions. The correlated attributes associated with PRODWEB-01 establish the strongest combined risk.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Vulnerability Prioritization # Asset Criticality # Exploitability # Threat Intelligence # CMDB Context # Risk-Based Remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 13
An analyst is assigned to a new cybersecurity improvement project. The analyst wants to better understand the workflow processes and the skill set of the cybersecurity engineers on this task force. The analyst sets up a recurring, weekly conference call. Which of the following best describes the purpose for the conference call?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A recurring team call supports information sharing, workflow alignment, role awareness, and coordination among the cybersecurity engineers.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A vulnerability analyst runs a credentialed vulnerability scan covering all addressable enterprise assets. After running the scan, the analyst discovers a large number of critical vulnerabilities that cannot be immediately remediated.
Which of the following are the most likely reasons why the vulnerabilities cannot be immediately addressed?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Legacy and proprietary systems, unavailable patches, and vendor dependencies are classic technical and operational inhibitors to immediate vulnerability remediation. A legacy application may require obsolete libraries or operating systems that cannot accept modern updates. Proprietary platforms may permit changes only through an approved manufacturer or integrator, while certain vulnerabilities simply have no patch available when they are initially disclosed.
CISA guidance emphasizes continuously monitoring vendor vulnerability and patch announcements because remediation frequently depends on vendor-provided updates. CISA and NIST guidance also recognizes that systems remaining in service after vendor support ends create significant vulnerability-management challenges because patches may no longer be produced.
Option A is weakened by "absence of an asset inventory" because the scenario states that the credentialed scan already covers all addressable enterprise assets; inventory quality can affect management, but it does not best explain why identified critical findings cannot be patched. Options B and C contain possible administrative difficulties, yet they are less directly tied to widespread remediation constraints.
When immediate remediation is impossible, analysts should document the exception, assess risk, apply compensating controls where feasible, monitor affected systems, and establish a migration or vendor- remediation plan.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Remediation Constraints # Legacy/Proprietary Systems # Patch Availability # Vendor Dependencies # Compensating Controls # Risk Acceptance/Exception Management.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following best describes the action a technical team should take during the containment phase of a security breach?
Answer: D
Explanation:
During the containment phase, the primary objective is to limit the spread and impact of the security incident by isolating affected systems or segments of the network. Creating automation scripts that can immediately isolate compromised hosts or block malicious activity helps rapidly contain the breach and prevent further damage.
NEW QUESTION # 16
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