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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Planning | 10% | - Organizational readiness analysis - Roles and responsibilities definition - Risk mitigation strategies - ALM maturity assessment |
| Testing | 10% | - Automated testing implementation - Test coverage and execution strategy - Testing methodology selection - Performance and regression testing |
| Deploying | 13% | - Production deployment strategy - Rollback and recovery planning - Deployment automation - Deployment tools comparison: Change Sets, Metadata API, Salesforce CLI, Packages |
| Building | 13% | - CI/CD pipeline design - Dependency management - Source control and version control implementation - Development best practices and standards |
| System Design | 15% | - Environment and sandbox strategy design - Single-org vs multi-org strategy evaluation - Deployment architecture design - Agile tools and Salesforce DX usage |
| Operating | 8% | - Continuous improvement - Governance enforcement - Post-deployment monitoring - Support and maintenance processes |
| Application Lifecycle Management | 17% | - Release management frameworks - Development models: Change Set, Org Development, Package Development - Development methodologies evaluation - Governance strategy design |
| Releasing | 14% | - Release strategy design - Package types: managed, unmanaged, unlocked - Release scheduling and coordination - Release communication and training |
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NEW QUESTION # 46
Universal Containers has an active production org and they are planning to release some new features to it next month. The team is working to prepare a deployment plan and reached out to the technical architect for inputs on rollback strategy.
What should a technical architect recommend?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct selection is D. A complete rollback must restore previously existing metadata and remove components introduced by the failed release. A pre-release baseline plus destructiveChanges.xml for newly added components gives a reproducible reverse deployment; simply redeploying the old metadata does not automatically delete new components. From a release perspective, approved functionality must be isolated from unfinished work and promoted through a predictable, auditable path. Release calendars, validation, stakeholder approval, rollback planning, and branch discipline reduce the risk that a technically correct change becomes an operational failure during production promotion. The rejected alternatives weaken release control by mixing development states, skipping required validation, or treating production promotion as an ad hoc administrative task. For this scenario, the decisive point is therefore the platform behavior represented by the selected option (D. Create a sandbox from production to take the backup of existing metadata. To roll back deployment, use destructivechanges.xml to delete new components and then Deploy again to production using metadata from this sandbox.). Applying that rule consistently keeps the implementation aligned with Salesforce-supported lifecycle practices and makes the resulting change easier to review, validate, and operate across environments.
Study Guide reference: Releasing - release management; branching and hotfixes; production readiness; rollback strategy; seasonal releases; approvals.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Universal Containers is a global organization that maintains regional production instances of Salesforce. One region has created a new application to track shipping containers. The CIO has requested that this new application be used globally by all the Salesforce instances and further maintained and modified regionally by local administrators.
Which two deployment tools will support the request? Choose 2 answers
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct selection is C, D. ANT Migration Tool and VS Code with Salesforce Extensions support file- based metadata deployment to multiple independent orgs. Change sets depend on deployment connections between related orgs, while Developer Console is not an enterprise distribution mechanism for a reusable global application. From a deployment perspective, the same release should be reproducible across environments, with dependencies, metadata/data differences, API behavior, and target-org constraints identified before production. Automation is valuable because it turns deployment knowledge into a controlled process rather than relying on memory or manual reconstruction. The alternatives are less reliable because they do not provide the same controlled handling of metadata, data relationships, validation, or environment- specific dependencies. For this scenario, the decisive point is therefore the platform behavior represented by the selected options (C. ANT Migration Tool; D. VS Code with Salesforce Extension). Applying that rule consistently keeps the implementation aligned with Salesforce-supported lifecycle practices and makes the resulting change easier to review, validate, and operate across environments.
Study Guide reference: Deploying - Metadata API and Tooling API; deployment validation; package
/change-set deployment; data migration; dependency management.
NEW QUESTION # 48
What is the process used to initiate a connection for change sets?
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 49
Universal Containers is working on the next phase of development for their Salesforce implementation involving a large amount of custom development. Which two strategies should be considered to address a critical production issue occurring in the middle of development? Choose 2 answers
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 50
There has been an increase in the number of defects .Universal Containers (UC) found the root cause to be decreased in quality if code. Which two options can enforce code quality in UC's continuous integration process? Choose 2 answers
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 51
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