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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Pharmacy and Pharmacology | 13% | - Drug classification, dosage calculation, administration routes - Controlled substance management - Preparation, dispensing, storage, safety and disposal - Anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology related to agents |
| Topic 2: Dentistry | 7% | - Periodontal care and patient education - Dental anatomy, disease recognition - Dental cleaning, polishing, radiography |
| Topic 3: Diagnostic Imaging | 6% | - Radiography: positioning, safety, technique - Ultrasound, other imaging modalities - Image quality assessment and documentation |
| Topic 4: Animal Care and Nursing | 20% | - Specialized care for exotic, large or neonatal patients - Husbandry, nutrition, fluid therapy - Infection control, sanitation, isolation - Physical examination, patient assessment |
| Topic 5: Surgical Nursing | 13% | - Surgical preparation, instrumentation, aseptic technique - Wound management, suture materials and techniques - Intraoperative and postoperative care |
| Topic 6: Communication and Veterinary Professional Support Services | 5% | - Practice management, team collaboration - Client education, communication techniques - Medical records, ethics, legal and regulatory compliance |
| Topic 7: Pain Management / Analgesia | 7% | - Multimodal analgesia protocols - Pain assessment, pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic control |
| Topic 8: Emergency Medicine / Critical Care | 7% | - Triage, shock, respiratory/cardiac emergencies - Toxicology, trauma, first aid procedures |
| Topic 9: Anesthesia | 13% | - Pre-anesthetic assessment and preparation - Anesthetic agents, equipment, monitoring - Recovery and emergency management |
| Topic 10: Laboratory Procedures | 9% | - Sample collection, handling and processing - Parasitology, microbiology, cytology - Hematology, clinical chemistry, urinalysis |
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NEW QUESTION # 444
Which of the following anesthetic monitoring parameters suggests hypoxemia?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A pulse oximeter can estimate hypoxemia or low levels of oxygen in the blood. When a patient is on 100% oxygen on an anesthetic circuit, the SpO2 should not decrease below 97%. When breathing room air, this may decrease to 95%. Because of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, subtle changes in SpO2 will occur despite prominent decreases in blood oxygen levels. A saturation level of less than 90% suggests hypoxemia.
A more accurate, though technically challenging and more expensive, way to monitor blood oxygen levels is via arterial blood gas analysis.
End tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2) reflects hyper- and hypocapnia, which are measures of carbon dioxide and not oxygen.
NEW QUESTION # 445
How many planes are there in stage 3 of anesthesia?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Anesthesia has been described as a series of four stages with specific reflexes and/or signs:
Stage 1: The period between administration of an anesthetic and loss of consciousness.
Respiratory efforts change as anesthesia deepens. In Stage 1, the animal is awake and respiration may be quite rapid due to the excitation of being handled. It is evenly apportioned between the chest and abdomen and is quite regular.
Stage 2: The period after the loss of consciousness, which may include actions such as uncontrolled movement, delirium, vocalization. For this reason, it may be known as the excitation phase.
Muscle tone decreases from a maximum during Stage 2 all the way through Stage 3. Jaw tone is a good indication of muscle tone. Breathing is still evenly apportioned between chest and abdomen but is less regular and breath-holding may occur.
Stage 3: The level at which surgery can be performed.
Shine a light in the eye and the pupil constricts (present at the start of Stage 3 and starts to decrease and will be absent by about the middle of Stage 3). Touch the corner of the eye or the cornea and the animal blinks (disappears early in Stage 3). Simulation of the larynx will cause the animal to swallow. The stimulation may be from outside, for example, an attempt to pass an endotracheal tube. Or this stimulation may be internal, for example, the presence of secretions in the larynx. This is a mechanism to prevent accidental aspiration of fluids into the lungs. This reflex will disappear early in Stage 3. Early in Stage 3, breathing is regular with equal contributions from chest and abdomen. As anesthesia deepens, breathing becomes shallower and more predominantly abdominal. Late in Stage 3, it becomes irregular and in Stage 4, it will stop.
Stage 3 anesthesia is divided into three planes:
*Plane 1: "Light" anesthesia - the animal still has blink and swallowing reflexes, and regular respirations
*Plane 2: "Surgical" anesthesia - the animal has lost blink reflexes, pupils become fixed but respirations remain regular.
*Plane 3: "Deep" anesthesia - the animal starts losing the ability to use the respiratory muscles and breathing becomes shallow; may require assisted ventilation.
Stage 4: Anesthetic crisis! Respiratory arrest and death from circulatory collapse are imminent.
Note: Some systems may divide Stage 3 into four planes, with planes 3 and 4 deeper than ideal.
NEW QUESTION # 446
When using ocular signs to monitor anesthetic depth, which patient response describes a present palpebral reflex?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A brisk palpebral reflex is consistent with a lighter anesthetic plane. It will progressively become slow, weak, and absent as depth increases.
The term "palpebral" refers specifically to the eyelids and does not involve the globe or cornea, as referred to in the other answer options. Tapping the skin medially or laterally by the canthus induces this response. When assessing eye position, rotation of the globes ventromedially is an indicator of intermediate anesthetic depth. Fixation of the pupils centrally and dilated indicates a deep plane. Blinking or retraction of the globe when the corneal surface is in contact is called the corneal reflex; its loss indicates a late sign shown with a deep anesthetic plane.
NEW QUESTION # 447
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are two common coagulation cascade tests. How should these samples be collected?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The coagulation cascade includes secondary hemostasis, and can be tested using two common tests: activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time (PT). These tests require whole blood added to a blue-top tube in a 9:1 ratio of blood to 3.8% trisodium citrate. The test tube should be filled appropriately, as overfilling or underfilling the tube will cause erroneous results.
The APTT and PT tests do not use green-, lavender-, or red-top tubes.
NEW QUESTION # 448
Fresh frozen plasma must be used within what length of time to ensure optimal clotting factor activity?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) must be used within 12 months of freezing to ensure optimal clotting factor activity.
Fresh plasma must be administered within 8 hours of collection.
NEW QUESTION # 449
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