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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Health Advocate
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NEW QUESTION # 158
A 37-year-old woman presents to your clinic with frequent palpitations. She has no other symptoms and is quite active. Physical examination and resting electrocardiogram findings are normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The most appropriate next step for a patient with intermittent palpitations and a normal ECG is Holter monitoring (or event monitoring). This can capture and correlate symptoms with cardiac rhythm.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, "Palpitations":
"Holter or event monitoring is indicated when the initial ECG is normal but the patient has episodic symptoms such as palpitations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-2: Arrhythmia):
"Candidates must use ambulatory ECG monitoring to investigate intermittent palpitations when resting ECG is unremarkable." Echocardiogram (A) assesses structural issues but not rhythm. #-blockers (B) should not be started without diagnosis. Stress testing (D) is for ischemia.
NEW QUESTION # 159
A 32-year-old woman presents to your outpatient clinic with concerns regarding a 6-month history of both a pulsatile buzzing sound in her ears and headaches. There is no history of hearing loss, vertigo, ear pain, or discharge from the ears. There is a long-standing history of prolonged exposure to occupational noise. She has a BMI of 32. Otoscopic examination is unremarkable, and there are no neck masses present. You determine that the buzzing sound is synchronous with her radial pulse. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Pulsatile tinnitus synchronous with the pulse may be vascular in origin. The association with headaches and elevated BMI (a risk factor for idiopathic intracranial hypertension, IIH) warrants neuroimaging to assess for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, vascular malformations, or raised intracranial pressure.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology / ENT:
"Pulsatile tinnitus requires investigation for vascular causes including idiopathic intracranial hypertension.
MRI or MRV is the next step."
MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 35-1: Headache and Tinnitus):
"Candidates must investigate pulsatile tinnitus with neuroimaging when vascular causes are suspected." Audiogram (A) is for hearing loss. EEG (C) is not useful for tinnitus. CRP (D) is irrelevant.
NEW QUESTION # 160
A 30-year-old man (assigned female at birth) presents to your clinic for a periodic health examination. He declines a gynecologic examination because such examinations lead to intense emotional distress for him. He also believes that he does not require a Papanicolaou (Pap) test because he is not in a sexual relationship with a man. After acknowledging the patient's distress and providing education regarding the need for Pap screening, which one of the following would be the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is essential to balance medical guidelines with trauma-informed, patient-centered care. This includes offering future discussion while respecting boundaries. Acknowledging distress and offering to explore more in the future (B) preserves trust and autonomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM and LGBTQ2S+ Health Section:
"For transgender individuals, screening decisions should be personalized. Trauma-informed care includes validating distress and deferring invasive exams when not urgent." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety):
"Candidates must prioritize patient-centered communication and consent, particularly when distress or marginalization may influence healthcare interactions." Option A is coercive. Option C is documentation only and lacks engagement or exploration.
NEW QUESTION # 161
A 10-year-old boy and his mother present to your office with a concern about handwashing. The mother explains that her son has been at a new school for the past month and that teachers have noticed that he is washing his hands all day. He has also hidden hand sanitizer in his desk. The hand-cleaning is a response to a constant anxiety that his hands are dirty, and that he might pass an infection to someone. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This child demonstrates classic features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD): intrusive contamination fears (obsession) and repetitive handwashing behaviors (compulsion) performed to reduce anxiety. The symptoms are excessive, impairing school function, and persist beyond normal developmental concerns.
According to MCCQE objectives, first-line treatment for mild to moderate pediatric OCD is cognitive- behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP). ERP involves gradual exposure to feared contaminants while preventing the compulsive handwashing response, thereby reducing anxiety through habituation and cognitive restructuring. Pharmacologic treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g., fluoxetine) is indicated for moderate to severe cases or when CBT alone is insufficient, but it is not the preferred initial intervention when psychotherapy is accessible. Risperidone is not first-line and may be considered only as augmentation in refractory cases. Changing schools or providing a teaching assistant does not address the underlying anxiety disorder. Early evidence-based intervention improves prognosis and functional outcomes in pediatric OCD.
NEW QUESTION # 162
A 56-year-old man is admitted to hospital with pyelonephritis and started on intravenous antibiotics. On day 2 of his hospitalization, he continues to report right flank pain, but he is able to walk. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.5°C
Blood pressure: 90/60 mm Hg
Heart rate: 105/min
The patient is mentating well but is concerned about his dog that is home alone due to his unexpected hospitalization. He requests to be released from hospital as he needs to make arrangements for his dog. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The patient is alert and capable of making his own decisions. The most ethical and respectful approach is to ensure he understands the risks and accept his choice. Holding his bed maintains continuity of care. Forcing him to stay (C) or discharging him AMA (A) is inappropriate if he intends to return.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Consent and Autonomy:
"Capable patients have the right to refuse or leave treatment. Physicians must ensure informed decision- making and maintain therapeutic rapport." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Capacity and Patient Autonomy:
"Candidates must respect a capable patient's right to leave care after informed discussion of risks and alternatives." Offering to enter his apartment (E) is inappropriate and unethical. Oral antibiotics (B) may not be clinically appropriate given hypotension.
NEW QUESTION # 163
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