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NEW QUESTION # 458
During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the virtual server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server's data and state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.
NEW QUESTION # 459
A vulnerability scan shows the following vulnerabilities in the environment:
At the same time, the following security advisory was released:
"A zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10 may be affecting your web server. The vendor is working on a patch or workaround." Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this scenario, the security analyst is presented with multiple vulnerabilities, including a critical zero-day vulnerability affecting the web server with a CVSS score of 10. The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized method for rating IT vulnerabilities, with a score of 10 indicating the highest severity.
Option A:Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
* Correct Choice:Given the critical nature of a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10, immediate action is warranted to prevent potential exploitation. Shutting down the affected web server reduces the attack surface and mitigates the risk until a patch or workaround is available. This aligns with incident response best practices, where containment is a priority to prevent further damage.
Option B:Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
* Incorrect Choice:While monitoring for patches is essential, it is a reactive approach. In the case of a zero-day vulnerability with active exploitation potential, waiting for a patch without implementing immediate protective measures exposes the organization to significant risk.
Option C:Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.
* Incorrect Choice:Re-scanning may confirm the vulnerability's presence but does not address the immediate threat. Action to mitigate the risk should take precedence over verification, especially when the vulnerability is known and critical.
Option D:Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
* Incorrect Choice:Communicating with the web security team is important; however, in the face of a critical zero-day vulnerability, immediate action (such as shutting down the affected asset) is necessary before addressing other vulnerabilities.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Exam Objective 3.2: "Given a scenario, perform incident response activities." This includes containment strategies to address active threats effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 460
Which document identifies critical business functions, calculates downtime financial impacts, and defines RPO and RTO values?
Answer: A
Explanation:
ABusiness Impact Analysis (BIA)is the correct document thatidentifies critical servicesand definesRecovery Point Objectives (RPOs)andRecovery Time Objectives (RTOs). It helps organizations determine the impact of downtime and the maximum tolerable outages for business functions.
* Disaster recovery plan (A)uses the information from the BIA.
* Playbooks (C)are tactical and focus on specific incidents.
* Backup plans (D)support BIA but don ' t define RPO/RTO themselves.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide - Chapple & Seidl, Chapter 9
CySA+ Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 - Incident Response and Management
NEW QUESTION # 461
A cyber-security analyst is implementing a new network configuration on an existing network access layer to prevent possible physical attacks. Which of the following BEST describes a solution that would apply and cause fewer issues during the deployment phase?
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 462
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-
Which of the following is being attempted?
Answer: D
Explanation:
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack?
Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of ...3
NEW QUESTION # 463
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