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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Specimen Processing and Handling | - Quality control and rejection criteria - Labeling and documentation - Specimen transport and storage |
| Topic 2: Professional Practice | - Communication and professionalism - Ethics and patient confidentiality (HIPAA) |
| Topic 3: Patient Preparation | - Patient identification and communication - Site selection and preparation - Explaining procedures and obtaining consent |
| Topic 4: Specimen Collection | - Order of draw and tube handling - Venipuncture techniques - Capillary puncture procedures |
| Topic 5: Safety and Compliance | - Infection control and PPE usage - Needlestick prevention and biohazard disposal - OSHA standards and safety protocols |
>> Lab Phlebotomy-Technician Questions <<
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NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following tube additives promotes clot formation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Silica promotes clot formation and is commonly used as a clot activator in serum separator tubes and other serum collection tubes. Its function is to accelerate the clotting process so serum can be separated after appropriate clotting time and centrifugation. Heparin is the opposite; it is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin activity and is used when plasma is required, especially for many chemistry tests. Oxalate is also an anticoagulant, commonly paired with sodium fluoride in gray-top tubes, where oxalate inhibits clotting and fluoride helps preserve glucose by inhibiting glycolysis. Citrate is another anticoagulant, usually in light-blue tubes for coagulation testing, where the blood-to-additive ratio is critical. This question tests additive function, not tube color memorization alone. A phlebotomist must know whether a tube is intended to produce serum, plasma, or whole blood because incorrect tube selection directly creates preanalytical error and possible specimen rejection. Reference topics: Routine Blood Collections; tube additives; clot activators; order of draw; specimen integrity. NHA's CPT test plan includes equipment, collection tubes, additives, and routine blood collection procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following collections requires the phlebotomist to discard the first voided specimen and save all subsequent urine for a full day?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A 24-hour urine collection requires the patient to discard the first voided specimen and then save all subsequent urine for the full collection period, including the final void at the ending time. Discarding the first void empties the bladder and establishes the start of the timed interval. A clean-catch urine culture requires cleansing and collecting a midstream specimen in a sterile container, not saving urine for 24 hours. A random urinalysis is collected at a single time and does not require timed accumulation. A sputum culture is a respiratory specimen, not a urine collection. Patient instruction is critical because one missed urine specimen can invalidate the entire 24-hour collection. The phlebotomist should explain start and stop times, storage requirements, preservative hazards if present, labeling, and return instructions. The patient should not change fluid intake unless instructed by the provider. Reference topics: Special Collections; 24-hour urine; patient instructions; non-blood specimens; timed collection.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A phlebotomist enters a patient's room and finds the patient motionless and cyanotic. Which of the following actions should the phlebotomist take?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first action is to assess responsiveness by speaking loudly and directly to the patient, such as asking whether they are okay. A motionless, cyanotic patient may be in respiratory or cardiac arrest, but the phlebotomist must follow the emergency response sequence rather than jumping to airway maneuvers, rescue breaths, or AED use before confirming responsiveness and activating help according to facility protocol. The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver is an airway-opening step, but it follows initial responsiveness assessment and emergency activation. Rescue breaths are not the first step and are performed only within the appropriate CPR sequence and training level. Applying an AED is appropriate when cardiac arrest is suspected and the emergency response process has been initiated, but the first immediate action from the options is responsiveness assessment. NHA CPT safety content includes recognizing emergencies, initiating first aid, responding to codes, and CPR-related guidelines. Reference topics: Safety and Compliance; emergency recognition; CPR sequence; first aid response.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is the maximum allowed time for a tourniquet application before possibly affecting test results?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The maximum recommended tourniquet application time before results may be affected is 60 seconds. A tourniquet is applied to increase venous filling and make the vein easier to locate and access, but prolonged application causes venous stasis and hemoconcentration. When blood remains trapped below the tourniquet too long, fluid shifts from the vascular space into surrounding tissue, concentrating cells, proteins, and protein-bound analytes. This can falsely elevate results such as potassium, calcium, proteins, and other chemistry values. It can also increase patient discomfort and make the collection more difficult. Thirty and forty-five seconds are acceptable but are not the maximum allowed time. Ninety seconds is too long and increases the risk of altered test values. Correct practice is to apply the tourniquet only long enough to select the site and establish blood flow, then release it promptly, especially before removing the needle. Reference topics: Routine Blood Collections; tourniquet application; hemoconcentration; venipuncture preanalytical variables.
NEW QUESTION # 41
From which of the following sites should a phlebotomist take a capillary collection from a 3-year-old child?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
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