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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.
Topic 2
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 3
  • Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding
Topic 4
  • Diseases and Disease Processes and Application to the Clinical Chart Review: Covers clinical indicators across all ICD-10-CM chapters, applied to chart reviews, with recognition of medications, diagnostic tests, and abbreviations as documentation clarification triggers.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q14-Q19):

NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A key distinction is that inpatient coding is tightly linked to MS-DRG assignment and inpatient-specific sequencing rules, including selection of the principal diagnosis using the "after study" standard and capture of secondary diagnoses that qualify as complications/comorbidities (CC/MCC) when they meet reporting criteria. This makes diagnosis sequencing and documentation of severity/acuity central to inpatient reimbursement and quality measurement. Outpatient coding does not use MS-DRGs; instead, it typically uses "first-listed" diagnosis concepts for the encounter and assigns ICD-10-CM based on conditions addressed that day, with procedure payment often driven by CPT/HCPCS and, in hospital outpatient departments, packaging/OPPS logic. Therefore, statement A is incorrect (principal diagnosis is not the outpatient focus), C is incorrect (there are meaningful differences), and D is incorrect because outpatient coding absolutely depends on encounter diagnoses being documented and supported. Outpatient CDI education stresses documenting the reason for visit, linking symptoms to confirmed conditions when known, and showing MEAT for chronic conditions so outpatient coding is accurate and defensible.


NEW QUESTION # 15
What stage of pressure ulcer describes necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Stage 4 pressure ulcer (pressure injury) is characterized by full-thickness tissue loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures. The key phrase in the question-"necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle"-signals a depth of injury that extends beyond the subcutaneous tissue and involves muscle, which is consistent with Stage 4. By comparison, Stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis (no necrosis through deeper structures). Stage 3 involves full-thickness skin loss where adipose may be visible, but muscle, tendon, or bone are not exposed; undermining and tunneling may occur, yet the defining line is that it does not extend to muscle/bone involvement. "Stage 5" is not part of standard pressure ulcer staging used in coding and documentation. Outpatient CDI practice emphasizes documenting the exact stage, anatomic location, laterality when applicable, and whether the ulcer is healing or complicated (infection/osteomyelitis) because stage drives specificity, severity capture, and appropriate care planning documentation.


NEW QUESTION # 16
Symbicort is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Symbicort is an inhaled combination medication containing an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA). In outpatient chart review, this medication class is most strongly associated with chronic airway inflammatory diseases requiring controller therapy-especially persistent asthma (and also maintenance therapy for COPD, though COPD is not an option here). For CDI purposes, medication-to-diagnosis linkage can act as a clinical indicator supporting clarification when the visit note lists respiratory symptoms but does not clearly document the chronic condition being treated or its acuity/status. Symbicort is not used to treat musculoskeletal degenerative disease (osteoarthritis), peripheral nerve pain from diabetes (diabetic neuropathy), or cardiac pump failure (congestive heart failure). When Symbicort appears on the active med list, outpatient CDI commonly checks that the provider's documentation appropriately reflects asthma classification (intermittent vs persistent), current control, exacerbation status if applicable, and that the condition is being monitored/assessed/treated during the encounter to support reportability and accurate coding.


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following tools or processes is MOST appropriate to share with providers and administrators during a department meeting when demonstrating documentation and coding patterns?

Answer: A

Explanation:
When the goal is to demonstrate documentation and coding patterns to a mixed audience of providers and administrators, the most effective tool is one that clearly displays comparisons and trends in an easily interpretable way. A bar graph is ideal because it can quickly show differences in rates or volumes-such as unspecified diagnosis utilization, HCC capture rates, query response/agree rates, denial categories, or condition specificity-across providers, clinics, or time periods. This supports outpatient CDI education by making variation visible and actionable while keeping the discussion focused on documentation behaviors and opportunities for improvement. A spaghetti diagram is used for mapping physical workflow movement and inefficiencies, not coding patterns. The PDSA cycle is a structured improvement method for testing changes, but it is not primarily a visualization tool for presenting pattern data. The Donabedian model (structure-process-outcome) is a quality framework that helps organize improvement thinking, but it doesn't display coding/documentation pattern performance as directly as a bar graph.


NEW QUESTION # 18
Progress note states: "Recent EGD identified severe hyperplasia, without obstruction. Follow-up today for Barrett's. Complains of chest pain, difficulty swallowing, 15-pound weight loss in last 12 weeks. Diagnoses-significant weight loss, cachexia, anorexia, Barrett's esophagus, and chest pain. Plan short term tube feeding-consult home health and dietitian for management." Which of the following diagnoses will trigger an HCC assignment?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Within the CMS-HCC model, only certain diagnoses map to HCC categories that contribute to the RAF score. Among the listed options, cachexia is the diagnosis most likely to map to an HCC because it represents a serious systemic wasting condition associated with significant morbidity, higher expected resource use, and frequently coexists with advanced chronic disease. In contrast, Barrett's esophagus generally does not map to an HCC in CMS risk adjustment, and symptom-based diagnoses such as significant weight loss typically do not trigger HCC capture. Anorexia in general clinical usage often represents a symptom (loss of appetite) and, unless it is clearly documented as a qualifying malnutrition-related condition with appropriate specificity, it usually does not map to an HCC. The plan for tube feeding and dietitian involvement strengthens clinical relevance, but for risk adjustment the diagnosis must be one that maps to an HCC category-here, cachexia is the one that meets that criterion and would be the HCC-triggering diagnosis.


NEW QUESTION # 19
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