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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Capital Budgeting | - Internal rate of return (IRR) - Net present value (NPV) - Payback period analysis |
| Risk and Return | - Portfolio risk and diversification - Expected return |
| Cost of Capital and Valuation | - Bond and stock valuation basics - Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) |
| Financial Statement Analysis | - Balance sheet and income statement interpretation - Cash flow analysis - Financial ratios |
| Time Value of Money | - Annuities and perpetuities - Present and future value calculations |
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NEW QUESTION # 57
Why would a company choose to maintain a certain level of cash as a reserve balance?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Maintaining a cash reserve is a core element of prudent working capital management. Firms hold cash to meet transaction needs, precautionary needs, and sometimes speculative opportunities. The precautionary motive is particularly important, as it allows firms to handle unexpected expenses, revenue shortfalls, or economic disruptions without relying on costly external financing. Adequate liquidity reduces the risk of financial distress and enhances operational flexibility. Financial management theory emphasizes balancing the opportunity cost of holding cash against the benefits of liquidity. Option C accurately reflects this precautionary and liquidity-focused rationale.
NEW QUESTION # 58
What is a drawback of using the Gordon growth model for estimating the cost of common equity?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Gordon growth model estimates the cost of common equity based on dividends, assuming dividends grow at a constant rate indefinitely. While the model is simple and intuitive, its main drawback is that it can only be applied to firms that pay dividends and have stable, predictable growth rates. Many firms-especially young, high-growth, or technology companies-either do not pay dividends or experience volatile growth, making the model inappropriate for them. Additionally, small changes in the growth rate assumption can lead to large changes in estimated equity cost, increasing sensitivity and potential estimation error. Financial management texts emphasize that while the Gordon growth model is useful for mature, dividend-paying firms, it lacks flexibility across industries and life-cycle stages. Option D correctly identifies this key limitation.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Why might a firm's net income not equal its cash flows from operations for a period?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Net income and cash flow from operations are not the same because net income is prepared using accrual accounting, while cash flow from operations focuses on actual cash movement. Under accrual accounting, revenue may be recorded when earned rather than when cash is received, and expenses may be recorded when incurred rather than when cash is paid. In addition, net income includes noncash expenses such as depreciation and amortization, which reduce accounting profit without reducing current-period cash. Changes in working capital accounts, such as accounts receivable, inventory, and accounts payable, also create differences between net income and operating cash flow. For example, a company may report strong sales and net income, but if many customers have not yet paid, cash flow from operations may still be low. Financial statement analysis places strong emphasis on understanding these differences because cash flow is essential for liquidity, debt repayment, and ongoing operations. Choice A is correct because it directly captures the main reasons net income and cash flow from operations differ. The other choices incorrectly describe the purpose or nature of net income and cash flow reporting.
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NEW QUESTION # 60
In the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), what does a beta (#) greater than 1 signify for a portfolio?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Within the CAPM framework, beta quantifies the degree of systematic risk relative to the market portfolio, which by definition has a beta of 1. A portfolio with a beta greater than 1 carries more systematic risk than the market, meaning its returns are expected to be more sensitive to market movements. This higher sensitivity increases both upside potential and downside exposure. According to CAPM, investors require a higher expected return for bearing this additional risk. Importantly, a higher beta does not guarantee superior performance; it simply reflects greater volatility relative to the market. Option B accurately captures this risk-based interpretation.
NEW QUESTION # 61
How does the global bond market impact the strategies of multinational corporations?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multinational corporations (MNCs) often seek the lowest-cost and most flexible sources of long-term financing. The global bond market expands their choices beyond domestic lenders and investors, enabling firms to issue debt in multiple countries, currencies, and structures (fixed vs. floating rates, maturities, secured vs. unsecured, and different covenant packages). This broad access can reduce the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) if foreign markets provide lower yields, deeper investor demand, or better terms for the issuer's credit profile. Global issuance can also support operational needs: an MNC earning revenues in euros or yen may issue bonds in those currencies to create a natural hedge, matching debt service with foreign-currency cash inflows and reducing exchange-rate exposure. However, the global bond market does not remove currency risk automatically (so B is incorrect), nor does it guarantee fixed interest rates (D is incorrect). While domestic issuance remains important, global markets increase strategic flexibility, allowing firms to optimize capital structure, diversify funding sources, manage refinancing risk, and tailor financing to geographic cash flows-core themes in international financial management.
NEW QUESTION # 62
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