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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Incident response workflows - Event analysis and investigation - Real-time threat blocking - Forensic data collection - Automated threat remediation |
| Topic 2: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Policy assignment and targeting - Custom policy creation and modification - Application control rules - Default security policies overview - Exclusion configuration |
| Topic 3: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Initial configuration and licensing - Collector Agent installation methods - Communication Manager setup - Management Platform deployment |
| Topic 4: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - Backup and recovery procedures - Log management and export - User management and role-based access - Upgrade and patch management - System monitoring and diagnostics |
| Topic 5: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - Collector Agent components and functionality - Management Platform architecture - Communication Manager and Cloud Console - FortiEDR core architecture overview |
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NEW QUESTION # 15
Within the FortiEDR architecture, which component needs JumpBox capabilities to enable authenticated and controlled communication with FortiAnalyzer? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Core.
For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is "A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer." The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.
So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.
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NEW QUESTION # 16
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious . In FortiEDR, event classification can be performed by the Core and later updated by FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) . The guide states that the audit history shows the classification chronology and includes details when FCS reclassifies a security event after the Core' s initial classification. It also states that notifications can be based on either Core or FCS classification depending on whether FCS classification is received within the timeout period.
The exhibit also shows TestApplication.exe with Status: Running . That means the process was launched and is currently running on the endpoint. Therefore, C is correct.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit clearly shows Status: Unhandled , not Handled. The guide states that FortiEDR security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and users can later mark them handled through the incident handling workflow.
Option D is wrong because the exhibit shows rule indicators such as Invalid Checksum , Suspicious Packer
, and Writable Code , but it does not prove that TestApplication.exe is "sophisticated malware." FortiEDR classifies the event as malicious, but the guide's Malicious classification means the event is verified to have malicious capability, is intended to harm the infected device, and has no commercially viable use; the exhibit alone does not justify the stronger claim "sophisticated malware."
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NEW QUESTION # 17
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 18
Refer to the exhibit:
You are asked to block applications based on hash attributes. Which two factors must you consider when applying the hash value? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that when manually adding applications to be blocked, you can define the application using Hash or using any combination of File Name / Path / Signer attributes. This means hashes can be used independently and do not require filename, path, or signer attributes.
The guide also states that each hash is a unique identifier of an individual application, and the exhibit itself shows the hash field note: "SHA-1 or SHA-2 or MD5." Therefore, the hash must use a supported hash format, making D correct.
For multiple hash entries, the uploaded guide text says they must be comma separated , while the exhibit note says "You can enter multiple hashes comma separated." So the technically exact guide wording supports comma separation, not line separation. However, given your answer choices, A is clearly trying to test the requirement that multiple hashes must be separated correctly. The option wording says "line- separated," which is not exact against the guide; the better wording would be comma-separated . Since no
"comma-separated" option is provided, A is the intended separation-related answer, but the wording is flawed.
Option B is definitely wrong because hash mode is an alternative to attributes. Option C is also not the best answer because, although each hash uniquely identifies a file/application variant, the operational requirement is not that "hashes must be unique to each application" in the way the option implies. Hashes may represent different variants of the same application.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 20
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