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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Professionalism, ethics, and compliance | 9.17% | - Query compliance, DRG creep, and audit risks - Confidentiality, DRG compliance, and ethical CDI practices |
| Anatomy and physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and medical terminology | 19.17% | - Anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and terminology - Clinical conditions and clinical indicators |
| Medical record documentation | 19.17% | - Documentation clarification and compliant physician queries - Documentation requirements and diagnosis or procedure code assignment |
| Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting | 14.17% | - Principal and secondary diagnosis assignment - Coding guidelines, AHA Coding Clinic, HACs, and POA indicators |
| Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the IPPS | 12.5% | - IPPS, MS-DRGs, reimbursement, and medical necessity - CC/MCC, CMI, Medicare contractors, and compliance |
| Impact of reportable diagnoses on quality of care | 8.33% | - Quality metrics, reporting programs, and financial impact - Mortality, severity of illness, and risk of mortality |
| Healthcare facility CDI program analysis | 8.33% | - CDI productivity, provider response, CMI, and program metrics - Data analysis, forecasting, and performance measurement |
| Communication skills | 9.17% | - CDI and coding roles and interdisciplinary collaboration - Physician education and effective communication |
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NEW QUESTION # 143
A patient experienced a type 1 STEMI 10 days ago. The patient is readmitted and develops a new type 1 NSTEMI during the four-week acute myocardial infarction period. Which ICD-10-CM concept applies?
Answer: C
Explanation:
ICD-10-CM provides category I22 for a subsequent acute myocardial infarction occurring within four weeks-28 days-of an initial acute MI, when the qualifying MI types and circumstances meet the classification requirements.
The FY 2026 Official Guidelines specify that when a patient with a type 1 or unspecified acute MI experiences a new type 1 or unspecified MI within four weeks of the initial MI, a code from category I22 is used together with the appropriate I21 code. Sequencing depends on the circumstances of the encounter.
This rule requires care because type 2 MI and certain other myocardial infarction classifications do not follow the same I22 subsequent-MI logic. CDI specialists therefore need accurate documentation of MI type, anatomic location when applicable, timing, and whether the current event represents a genuinely new infarction rather than ongoing care for the original MI.
The prior STEMI does not become an "old MI" merely because the patient left the hospital; the ICD-10-CM acute MI period extends for four weeks from onset.
CCDS Reference Topics: Acute MI; subsequent MI; I21/I22; four-week rule; cardiovascular coding.
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NEW QUESTION # 144
A CDI manager is evaluating physician participation in the program. Which metric most strongly indicates poor physician engagement?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A high volume of unanswered queries most directly indicates inadequate provider engagement. This question is adapted from the current ACDIS Candidate Handbook's publicly released CCDS sample questions.
A provider may legitimately agree or disagree with a CDI query. Disagreement does not necessarily indicate poor engagement because the purpose of a query is clarification, not obtaining a predetermined diagnosis. A physician who reviews the clinical information and documents that the condition is ruled out, clinically undetermined, or otherwise different from the proposed possibilities is still participating appropriately.
Likewise, the number of queries generated is primarily a CDI workload or opportunity metric. It does not demonstrate whether physicians are responding.
A persistent nonresponse rate is more concerning because unanswered queries can delay final coding, create unresolved ambiguity, affect billing timeliness, reduce documentation completeness, and indicate weaknesses in provider communication or organizational query escalation procedures.
A CDI manager should not evaluate engagement from a single metric in isolation. Response time, response rate, education participation, documentation trends, service-line differences, and escalation frequency provide additional useful context.
CCDS Reference Topics: Physician engagement; query-response metrics; CDI analytics; program effectiveness.
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NEW QUESTION # 145
Documentation indicates an excisional debridement was performed without further specification. The CDI specialist should query to clarify which of the following?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most critical missing element is the depth or level of tissue actually debrided. Documentation of an excisional debridement should identify whether tissue removed included skin, subcutaneous tissue, fascia, muscle, bone, or another anatomical layer. The level removed is fundamental to accurate procedural classification and coding.
CMS wound-care documentation standards similarly emphasize that the medical record should describe the type and depth of tissue removed. Merely knowing that an excisional debridement occurred does not establish the anatomical level of the procedure.
The instrument may provide useful procedural context-for example, scalpel, scissors, curette, or other technique-but the instrument alone does not identify the deepest tissue excised. Wound size can be important for clinical care and certain coding systems, but it does not replace documentation of the tissue level removed. The identity of the person performing the procedure is also part of procedural documentation but does not answer the principal coding-specific deficiency in this scenario.
A CDI query should therefore seek the deepest tissue level actually excised rather than infer it from the wound's overall depth.
CCDS Reference Topics: Medical record documentation; ICD-10-PCS/procedure documentation; debridement specificity.
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NEW QUESTION # 146
A patient was admitted with weakness, loss of appetite, hemoglobin 7.8, WBC 2,700, and platelet count 58.
The admitting diagnoses on the history and physical were anemia, leukopenia, decreased platelets, and rule out myelodysplastic syndrome. Based on these clinical indicators a CDI specialist should query for which of the following conditions?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The laboratory findings demonstrate reduction in all three major peripheral blood-cell lines: hemoglobin 7.8 indicates anemia, WBC 2,700 indicates leukopenia, and platelets 58 indicate thrombocytopenia. Collectively, this pattern is consistent with pancytopenia, making option C the most appropriate documentation clarification.
The National Cancer Institute defines pancytopenia as a lower-than-normal number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Importantly, pancytopenia describes the hematologic state; it does not establish its underlying etiology. Myelodysplastic syndrome was only being ruled out in the scenario, so the CDI specialist should not infer it as the definitive cause.
Thrombocytopenia alone would capture only one component of the abnormal CBC and would fail to represent the simultaneous anemia and leukopenia. Myelophthisis implies marrow displacement or infiltration and cannot be inferred from these counts alone. Likewise, aplastic anemia is a specific bone-marrow failure diagnosis requiring provider determination and supporting diagnostic evaluation.
A compliant query can present pancytopenia as a clinically supported choice while allowing the provider to document another explanation.
CCDS Reference Topics: Hematology; clinical indicators; medical terminology; compliant query opportunity.
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NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following diagnoses is classified as a major complication/comorbidity (MCC) under the FY
2026 MS-DRG system?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Severe protein-calorie malnutrition is the correct answer. This question is adapted from an official CCDS sample question published by ACDIS.
Under the FY 2026 MS-DRG Definitions Manual, E43, unspecified severe protein-calorie malnutrition, is classified as an MCC. In contrast, moderate and mild protein-calorie malnutrition codes are classified as CCs rather than MCCs.
An MCC can materially affect MS-DRG assignment when the applicable DRG family differentiates cases by MCC status and when no exclusion or other grouper rule prevents the effect. However, the financial effect is never sufficient justification for a query. Documentation must be clinically supported and reflect the patient's actual condition.
A dietitian may document detailed nutrition findings and malnutrition criteria, but the reportable diagnosis ordinarily requires documentation by the provider responsible for establishing diagnoses. Therefore, when strong nutritional indicators exist but the provider has not documented malnutrition, a compliant query may be appropriate.
For CCDS preparation, candidates should understand both the clinical characteristics of malnutrition and its coding/reimbursement classification.
CCDS Reference Topics: MCCs; malnutrition; MS-DRG methodology; documentation requirements; IPPS.
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NEW QUESTION # 148
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