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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Working Capital Management | - Current Asset Management
|
| Cost of Capital and Capital Structure | - Leverage and Capital Structure
|
| Financial Management Concepts | - Financial Environment
|
| Capital Budgeting | - Cash Flow Estimation
|
| Financial Statement Analysis | - Ratio Analysis
|
| Time Value of Money | - Present and Future Value
|
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NEW QUESTION # 56
What are opportunity costs in the context of inventory management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Opportunity cost represents the return a firm forgoes by investing resources in one use instead of the next best alternative. In inventory management, capital tied up in inventory cannot be used for other value-generating activities such as investing in new projects, paying down debt, or returning cash to shareholders. Financial management emphasizes opportunity cost as a key component of inventory carrying costs, along with storage, insurance, and obsolescence. Ignoring opportunity costs can lead to excessive inventory levels and reduced firm value. Option B correctly identifies this fundamental concept.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What is a consequence of a firm having a longer cash cycle?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A longer cash cycle means that more time passes between when a firm pays cash for inventory or production inputs and when it receives cash from customers. As this cycle lengthens, more funds are tied up in operations for a longer period. This increases the firm's need to hold cash or obtain short-term financing to support day- to-day activities. For example, if inventory sits longer before being sold or if customers take longer to pay, the firm must continue covering payroll, suppliers, and other operating expenses while waiting to recover cash.
Financial management views the cash conversion cycle as a critical working capital measure because it directly affects liquidity needs, financing cost, and operational risk. Choice C is correct because a longer cycle usually requires greater operating cash support. Choice A is incorrect because longer cycles typically reduce liquidity pressure only if financing is abundant, which is not the normal interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because a longer cash cycle does not automatically raise profits. Choice D is the opposite of the correct relationship. Therefore, C is the best answer because longer operating cycles increase the amount of cash a firm must keep available for operations.
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NEW QUESTION # 58
A company has just increased its dividend payout ratio.
What effect will this have on the company's sustainable growth rate?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sustainable growth rate (SGR) represents the maximum rate at which a firm can grow its sales, assets, and earnings without raising new external equity. It is calculated as ROE × retention ratio, where the retention ratio equals one minus the dividend payout ratio. When a firm increases its dividend payout ratio, it retains less earnings for reinvestment, thereby reducing internally generated equity growth. Unless return on equity increases enough to offset this reduction-which is not assumed here-the sustainable growth rate will decline. Financial management theory emphasizes the trade-off between paying dividends and reinvesting earnings to support future growth. Option C correctly reflects this fundamental relationship between dividend policy and sustainable growth.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Considering the fundamental relationships of the balance sheet, how can a company's assets increase without a corresponding rise in liabilities?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The balance sheet follows the basic accounting equation: Assets = Liabilities + Owners' Equity. This means that if assets increase, the increase must be matched by either an increase in liabilities, an increase in owners' equity, or some combination of both. Therefore, assets can rise without liabilities rising if the increase is financed through owners' equity. This might occur if the company issues new stock, receives additional capital contributions from owners, or retains earnings instead of distributing them as dividends. Choice A is incorrect because paying dividends reduces cash, which lowers assets and retained earnings. Choice B is also incorrect because depreciation reduces the book value of assets over time rather than increasing them. Choice C is not the best answer because restructuring long-term debt generally changes the form or timing of liabilities but does not explain an increase in assets without liabilities increasing. From a financial statement analysis perspective, understanding this relationship is essential when evaluating how a firm finances growth and how changes in the balance sheet affect leverage and ownership claims. Therefore, D is the correct answer because equity financing allows assets to increase without a matching increase in liabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 60
What is systematic risk in the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Systematic risk is the portion of total risk that affects the entire market or a broad group of securities and cannot be eliminated through diversification. It arises from economy-wide factors such as changes in interest rates, inflation, recessions, geopolitical events, and overall market sentiment. In the Capital Asset Pricing Model, systematic risk is the only type of risk for which investors are compensated because unsystematic, or firm-specific, risk can be diversified away by holding a well-balanced portfolio. Choice D is correct because it defines systematic risk as market-wide risk that influences virtually all securities to some degree. Choice C refers to company-specific risk, which is unsystematic risk. Choice B is incorrect because poor diversification may leave an investor exposed to more firm-specific risk, but that does not define systematic risk itself.
Choice A is far too extreme and does not capture the finance definition. Financial management uses the CAPM framework to connect systematic risk to required return through beta, which measures a security's sensitivity to movements in the market portfolio. Therefore, D is the correct answer because systematic risk is broad market risk that cannot be removed through diversification.
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NEW QUESTION # 61
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