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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Physician Activities | 50% | - Communication - Management - Professional Behaviours - Psychosocial Aspects |
| Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Chronic Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Acute Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
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NEW QUESTION # 331
You are examining a newborn in the delivery room. He was born at full term by spontaneous vaginal delivery.
On examination, he is active, and his vital signs are within normal range. His head circumference is at the third percentile, with height and weight at the 10th percentile. Auscultation of his chest is clear with normal cardiovascular examination findings. The abdomen is protuberant with a liver edge palpable at 4 cm below the costal margin and mild splenomegaly. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Microcephaly, intrauterine growth restriction, hepatosplenomegaly, and normal vital signs in a term newborn strongly suggest congenital viral infection (e.g., CMV, toxoplasmosis, rubella).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Congenital Infections:
"Signs of congenital TORCH infections include microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly, and growth restriction.
Early identification is key."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Infectious Disease:
"Candidates must recognize signs suggestive of congenital infections and distinguish from genetic or structural abnormalities." Cephalic molding (A) is benign and resolves spontaneously. Lipid storage diseases (B) are not present at birth. Cystic fibrosis (C) does not cause microcephaly or hepatosplenomegaly at birth. Trisomy 21 (D) has distinct dysmorphic features not described here.
NEW QUESTION # 332
A 69-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of a painful right knee. On history, he denies any trauma or similar previous episodes. Examination reveals effusion of the right knee that is warm to the touch. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first step in evaluating a new, hot, swollen joint is arthrocentesis to rule out septic arthritis and crystal arthropathy. Joint aspiration provides fluid for microscopy, culture, and crystal analysis, which guides definitive diagnosis and treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, Monoarthritis:
"Joint aspiration is the most important first step in evaluating monoarthritis. Septic arthritis must be ruled out before initiating any therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:
"Candidates should perform joint aspiration in the presence of acute monoarthritis to differentiate between septic arthritis, gout, and other causes." Radiography (A) and serum uric acid (B) do not establish cause acutely. Empiric antibiotics (D) and NSAIDs (E) should only be started after ruling out septic arthritis.
NEW QUESTION # 333
A 19-year-old primigravid woman presents to the office with a rapid increase of abdominal girth and shortness of breath. Her pregnancy is at 27 weeks' gestation, as confirmed by early ultrasonogram. The symphysis-fundal height is 45 cm. The fetal heart rate is 150/min (110-160). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Polyhydramnios is the most likely diagnosis given the rapid increase in abdominal girth , maternal shortness of breath , and a symphysis-fundal height (45 cm) significantly greater than expected for 27 weeks' gestation.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that fundal height should approximately correspond (±2-3 cm) to gestational age in weeks after 20 weeks. A discrepancy this large suggests excessive amniotic fluid volume.
Polyhydramnios leads to uterine overdistension, which explains dyspnea and rapid abdominal enlargement.
Twin pregnancy can cause a large fundal height, but early ultrasound confirmation of gestational age would likely have identified multiple gestation. Partial mole is typically associated with abnormal bleeding and abnormal fetal findings. Fetal macrosomia increases fundal height but usually not to this degree at 27 weeks and is more gradual. Ovarian tumor with ascites is less likely in a confirmed intrauterine pregnancy with normal fetal heart rate. Polyhydramnios is commonly associated with maternal diabetes or fetal anomalies affecting swallowing and requires further evaluation with ultrasound and glucose screening.
NEW QUESTION # 334
A 91-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department reporting blood in his stools, which has now resolved. He is able to give a history and mentions that this also happened 2 years ago. At that time, a colonoscopy was done and revealed diverticular disease as the cause. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a patient with known diverticular bleeding and no red flags (e.g., weight loss, anemia, family history), repeating colonoscopy is not required. Diverticular bleeding is typically self-limited. Colonoscopy within the past few years with clear findings suffices.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, Lower GI Bleed:
"Patients with known diverticulosis and self-limited bleeding who have had prior complete colonoscopy do not require repeat endoscopy unless symptoms recur or persist." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology:
"Candidates must recognize when no further invasive investigation is necessary in elderly patients with known benign findings and resolved symptoms." Option E is considerate but not clinically necessary for independent patients. Options A, B, and D are not indicated in resolved, low-risk cases.
NEW QUESTION # 335
A 40-year-old woman has not left her house for 6 months. She says that she is trying to avoid the intense anxiety, palpitations, tremors, sweating, dizziness, choking sensation, and breathlessness that develops when she leaves home. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient's symptoms are consistent with panic disorder with agoraphobia , characterized by recurrent panic attacks and avoidance of places where escape may be difficult. She has avoided leaving her home for 6 months due to fear of panic symptoms (palpitations, tremors, sweating, dyspnea, choking sensation), which is classic for agoraphobia.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-line management includes cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) with graded exposure therapy , which involves gradual, systematic exposure to feared situations (e.g., short walks progressing to longer distances). Encouraging incremental exposure directly addresses avoidance behavior and reduces anxiety over time.
Lithium is used for bipolar disorder, not panic disorder. Chlorpromazine (an antipsychotic) is not first-line and carries unnecessary side effects. Reassurance alone is insufficient because panic disorder significantly impairs functioning. Hospitalization is not indicated unless there is suicidality or inability to care for oneself.
Therefore, gradual exposure through increasing walks is the most appropriate next step, consistent with evidence-based management of panic disorder with agoraphobia.
NEW QUESTION # 336
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