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| Certification Vendor: | American Hospital Association Certification Center (AHA-CC) / ASHRM |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CPHRM Certification Examination |
| Exam Number: | CPHRM |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Real Exam Qty: | 175 multiple-choice (150 scored + 25 unscored pretest) |
| Exam Format: | Computer-based testing, Multiple-choice |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Exam Duration: | 180 minutes |
| Exam Price: | $275โ$400 USD (varies by membership status and region) |
| Passing Score: | Scaled score 500 (scale 200โ800) |
| Recommended Training: | AHA Certification Preparation Resources ASHRM CPHRM Exam Preparation Course |
| Exam Registration: | PSI Online Exam Scheduling AHA Certification Center CPHRM Registration |
| Sample Questions: | ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Computer-based testing delivered at PSI testing centers or online proctored format (depending on region) |
| Pre Condition: | Recommended: at least 3 years of experience in healthcare risk management or related healthcare field |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.aha.org/certification-center/cphrm |
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NEW QUESTION # 23
What significantly impacts whether incident reports are discoverable?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Discoverability of incident reports varies substantially by jurisdiction and depends on how state and federal laws define peer review privilege, quality improvement protections, and confidentiality-plus how courts interpret those protections. Risk management objectives include structuring reporting and investigation workflows to maximize protected quality review where legally available: routing analyses through designated committees, labeling and handling documents per policy, limiting distribution, and avoiding mixing risk/peer review materials with ordinary business records. However, privilege is not automatic; mishandling (broad email distribution, using reports for disciplinary actions outside protected structures, inconsistent committee practices) can weaken protections. A defensible program uses legal counsel guidance, staff training, and clear documentation rules so the organization learns from events while reducing unnecessary legal exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following are proactive elements of a workplace violence prevention program?
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, proactive workplace violence prevention focuses on measures implemented before an incident occurs. These strategies aim to identify risks, strengthen preparedness, and reduce the likelihood or severity of violent events.
Pre-employment background screening helps identify applicants with histories that may pose safety concerns, consistent with legal hiring standards. Ongoing staff training enhances awareness of warning signs, communication skills, and reporting procedures. Leadership rounding increases visibility, supports early identification of environmental or behavioral risks, and reinforces safety culture. Active shooter drills and emergency preparedness exercises ensure that staff understand response protocols and can act effectively under stress.
Options B, C, and D primarily describe reactive or post-incident measures. Law enforcement notification, restraining orders, crisis intervention, DEA notification, documentation, and emergency command activation occur after an event has taken place or when an immediate threat is present.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize prevention, preparedness, environmental assessment, and workforce education as foundational elements of a workplace violence program. Therefore, pre-employment screening, training, rounding, and drills represent proactive components of an effective prevention strategy.
NEW QUESTION # 25
An HMO advertises it is "the best" and its physicians can manage any illness/injury. A patient relies on this and is injured. The patient might sue the HMO for:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Marketing claims can create liability exposure when they reasonably induce reliance and the patient suffers harm. Depending on jurisdiction and facts, plaintiffs may allegeapparent agency(belief that physicians acted as the HMO's agents),vicarious liability, negligent credentialing, or negligent misrepresentation/consumer protection claims if statements are misleading. Risk management objectives include reviewing public claims for accuracy, ensuring marketing does not overpromise clinical capability, and aligning network adequacy and credentialing with representations. Clear disclosures about independent contractors may help but do not always defeat apparent agency claims. Controls include legal review of advertising, credentialing rigor, quality oversight, and complaint surveillance to detect mismatches between marketing and actual service capability.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A doctor fails to administer an indicated test, and the patient deteriorates and must be admitted. This is an example of:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Failing to order or perform an indicated test can represent a diagnostic process failure-an omission that delays recognition of deterioration, leading to harm and escalation of care. Risk management objectives treat diagnostic safety as a systems issue: access to decision support, timely follow-up of abnormal results, clear responsibility for test ordering and review, effective handoffs, and adequate staffing/workload conditions to avoid missed steps. Such errors are often linked to underuse in the IOM quality framework (failure to provide beneficial service) and can drive claims due to preventable worsening. Preventive strategies include standardized pathways, trigger tools for abnormal labs, closed-loop test result management, and teamwork practices that encourage escalation when clinical concern persists despite uncertainty.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following analyses is required as part of the sentinel event process of The Joint Commission?
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, The Joint Commission's sentinel event process requires completion of a thorough root cause analysis and development of a corrective action plan. While various analytical tools such as fishbone diagrams, flowcharts, or Pareto charts may be used to assist in identifying contributing factors, these specific tools are not mandated.
The essential required component is a written action plan that identifies specific improvement steps, assigns responsibility, and includes measurable outcomes and timelines for implementation. The action plan must address root causes and system vulnerabilities, not merely individual performance issues. It should demonstrate how corrective actions will reduce the likelihood of recurrence and include monitoring mechanisms to evaluate effectiveness.
Fishbone diagrams and Pareto charts are optional tools used during analysis but are not explicitly required elements. Similarly, departmental flowcharts may support understanding of processes but are not mandated by The Joint Commission.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize systematic investigation, leadership oversight, and documented improvement efforts following sentinel events. Therefore, a detailed action plan with implementation dates is the required analysis component within the sentinel event process.
NEW QUESTION # 28
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