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NEW QUESTION # 14
What is an external audit?
Answer: D
Explanation:
An external audit is an independent evaluation performed by a party outside the organization to determine whether security-related activities, controls, and evidence meet defined requirements. Those requirements are typically drawn from laws and regulations, contractual obligations, and recognized standards or control frameworks. The defining characteristics are independence and attestation: the auditor is not part of the operational team being assessed and provides an objective conclusion about compliance or control effectiveness.
Unlike a vulnerability-focused review (often called a security assessment or technical audit) that primarily seeks weaknesses to remediate, an external audit emphasizes whether controls are designed appropriately, implemented consistently, and operating effectively over time. External auditors usually test governance processes, risk management practices, policies, access control procedures, change management, logging and monitoring, incident response readiness, and evidence of periodic reviews. They also validate documentation and sampling records to confirm that what is written is actually performed.
Option B describes an internal assurance activity, such as self-assessment or internal audit preparation, where the security team checks its own implementation. Option C is closer to a financial or procurement review and is not the typical definition of an external security audit. Therefore, the best answer is the one that clearly captures an independent party reviewing security activities to ensure compliance with established criteria
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following is a cybersecurity risk that should be addressed by business analysis during solution development?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Business analysis is responsible for ensuring the solution is correctly understood in terms of business purpose, process flows, data handling, user roles, integrations, and non-functional requirements such as security and privacy. If the solution is not understood well enough, security risks will be missed early, leading to gaps that are expensive and difficult to correct later. This is why option C is the best answer: inadequate understanding prevents reliable identification of threats, sensitive data paths, trust boundaries, and misuse cases during requirements and design stages.
Cybersecurity documents emphasize "security by design" and "shift-left" practices, meaning risks should be identified and addressed before build and test. Business analysis contributes by eliciting and documenting security requirements, clarifying data classification and retention needs, defining user access and privilege expectations, identifying regulatory and policy constraints, and ensuring interfaces and third-party dependencies are known and assessed. BA also supports threat modeling inputs by providing accurate context about actors, workflows, and data movement, which are essential for identifying where controls like authentication, authorization, logging, encryption, and validation must exist.
Other options align to different roles or stages: budgets are governance and project management constraints, QA limitations are testing risks, and coding-introduced vulnerabilities are primarily addressed through secure coding standards, code review, and developer practices. BA's key cybersecurity risk is incomplete understanding that prevents correct security requirements and risk identification.
NEW QUESTION # 16
What term is defined as a fix to software programming errors and vulnerabilities?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A patch is a vendor- or developer-provided update intended to correct defects in software, including programming errors and security vulnerabilities. Cybersecurity and IT operations documents describe patching as a primary method of vulnerability remediation because many attacks succeed by exploiting known weaknesses for which fixes already exist. When a vulnerability is disclosed, the vendor may publish a patch that changes code, updates components, adjusts configuration defaults, or replaces vulnerable libraries. Applying the patch reduces the likelihood that an attacker can use that weakness to gain unauthorized access, execute malicious code, elevate privileges, or disrupt availability.
A patch is different from a control, which is a broader safeguard (technical, administrative, or physical) used to reduce risk; patching itself can be part of a control, such as a patch management program. It is also different from a release, which is a broader software distribution that may include new features, improvements, and multiple fixes; a patch is usually more targeted and may be issued between major releases. A log is an audit record of events and is used for monitoring, troubleshooting, and incident investigation-not for fixing code defects.
Cybersecurity guidance emphasizes disciplined patch management: maintaining asset inventories, prioritizing patches by risk and exposure, testing changes, deploying promptly, verifying installation, and documenting exceptions to manage residual risk.
NEW QUESTION # 17
What is a Recovery Point Objective RPO?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Recovery Point Objective defines the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It answers the question: "After an outage or disruptive event, how far back in time can we restore data and still meet business needs?" If the RPO is 4 hours, the organization is stating it can tolerate losing up to 4 hours of data changes, meaning backups, replication, journaling, or snapshots must be frequent enough to restore to a point no older than 4 hours before the incident. That is exactly what option A describes: the specific point in time prior to the outage to which data must be recovered.
RPO is often paired with Recovery Time Objective but they are not the same. RTO focuses on how quickly service must be restored, while RPO focuses on how much data the organization can afford to lose. Options B, C, and D all describe time-to-restore concepts, which align with RTO or related recovery targets rather than RPO.
In operational resilience and disaster recovery planning, RPO drives technical design choices: backup frequency, replication methods, storage and retention strategies, and validation testing. Lower RPO values generally require more robust and often more expensive solutions, such as near-real-time replication and strong change capture controls. RPO also influences incident response and recovery procedures to ensure restoration steps reliably meet the agreed data-loss tolerance.
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NEW QUESTION # 18
What is whitelisting in the context of network security?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Whitelisting, often called an "allow list," is a security approach where access is granted only to explicitly approved identities, services, applications, IP addresses, domains, or network flows. In network security, this means the default stance is "deny by default," and only pre-authorized entities are allowed to communicate or use specific resources. Option C matches this definition because it describes the core idea: explicitly permitting known, approved subjects (people, groups, service accounts, systems) to access a defined privilege or service.
Cybersecurity documents emphasize whitelisting as a strong risk-reduction technique because it constrains the attack surface. Instead of trying to block every bad thing (which is difficult due to evolving threats), whitelisting focuses on allowing only what is required for business operations. Examples include firewall rules that only permit specific source IPs to reach an admin interface, network segmentation policies that allow only required ports between zones, and application whitelisting that permits only approved executables to run. When implemented correctly, it reduces lateral movement opportunities, limits command-and-control traffic, and prevents unauthorized tools from executing.
Whitelisting is different from segmentation (option A), which is about isolating zones based on security needs, and different from blacklisting (option B), which blocks known-bad items. It is also not malware scanning (option D), which detects malicious code after it appears. Whitelisting aligns with least privilege and zero trust principles by tightly controlling what is allowed.
NEW QUESTION # 19
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