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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Security Monitoring and Analysis
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Handling and Investigation
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
|
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NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following tools provides logs that show user access to prohibited cloud storage, identifying whether a file was downloaded to a personal device?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) provides visibility into cloud application usage and user activity. It can monitor access to sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud storage services, track file uploads and downloads, and generate logs showing whether sensitive data was accessed or transferred to personal devices.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A public threat intelligence report includes indicators of compromise (IoCs) for threat actors. The threat actors are exploiting a zero-day vulnerability that the vendor has not fixed.
Which of the following techniques should be used until a patch is available?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A zero-day vulnerability presents a special remediation problem because the affected organization may have confirmed exposure while no vendor patch is available. Until permanent remediation becomes possible, the organization should increase continuous monitoring for evidence that the vulnerability is being targeted or exploited. Threat-intelligence IoCs can be incorporated into SIEM, EDR, IDS/IPS, network monitoring, and threat-hunting workflows to identify suspicious connections, processes, authentication events, or other behaviors associated with the threat actor.
Continuous monitoring does not eliminate the vulnerability, but it strengthens detection capability during the exposure window and supports rapid containment if exploitation occurs. This approach should ordinarily be combined with available compensating controls such as segmentation, access restrictions, service disabling, configuration changes, or other vendor-recommended workarounds.
Sinkholing is primarily used to redirect malicious network traffic, particularly command-and-control or malicious-domain traffic, and is not a general solution for an unpatched zero-day. Eradication occurs after malicious artifacts or persistence mechanisms have been identified during incident response. Evidence acquisition is a forensic activity and does not reduce the immediate exploitation risk.
CS0-004 requires analysts to consider active exploitation/threat intelligence, patch/remediation availability, context, and compensating controls when prioritizing and mitigating vulnerabilities.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Prioritization # Active Exploitation # Patch Availability # Compensating Controls and Continuous Monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A binary file that might contain malicious code is hosted on an isolated machine. An analyst wants to quickly detect the malicious code. Which of the following should the analyst use?
Answer: C
Explanation:
YARA scans files locally for patterns and signatures associated with known malware. It is appropriate for an isolated system, whereas VirusTotal requires uploading or querying the file online.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Despite removing malware from some of the affected hosts, several of an organization's internal resources are still unavailable two weeks after the discovery of a major incident.
Which of the following best describes this phase?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The organization remains in the eradication phase because malicious artifacts are still being removed from affected systems and the environment has not yet reached a trusted state suitable for complete restoration. The phrase "removing malware from some of the affected hosts" indicates that responders are actively eliminating the threat across the compromised estate rather than merely observing or documenting it.
Eradication addresses malware, attacker persistence, exploited vulnerabilities, unauthorized accounts, malicious configurations, compromised credentials, and other mechanisms that could permit reinfection or renewed access. Only after responders have sufficiently eliminated those causes should affected resources progress fully into recovery and return to normal operation. NIST's current incident-response model identifies containment, eradication, and recovery as related but distinct activities and emphasizes restoring assets only after appropriate incident handling has occurred.
Detection would have occurred when the incident was initially discovered. Analysis determines scope, cause, and impact. Preparation takes place before incidents by establishing plans, tools, procedures, and capabilities.
Post-incident activities occur after response and restoration and focus on organizational improvement.
The two-week duration does not determine the phase. The activity being performed does : continued removal of malware indicates eradication.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Containment # Eradication # Malware Removal # Persistence Removal # System Validation # Recovery.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A recent security audit found that RCE was possible for a specific application server that requires public access for HTTP and HTTPS traffic. Which of the following controls should a security analyst recommend?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 68
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