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ISACA CRISC Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Risk Response and Mitigation20%- Develop and implement controls
  • 1. Control types and classification
  • 2. Control design and optimization
- Manage and monitor risk treatment
  • 1. Third-party risk management
  • 2. Risk response strategies
  • 3. Risk appetite and tolerance
Monitoring and Reporting28%- Risk and control monitoring
  • 1. Control testing and validation
  • 2. Incident management
  • 3. Continuous monitoring
- Key risk indicator (KRI) development
  • 1. KRI threshold setting
  • 2. Performance monitoring
- Communicate risk and control status
  • 1. Board reporting
  • 2. Senior management reporting
  • 3. Risk dashboards and reporting
IT Risk Assessment26%- Assess capability maturity
  • 1. Control assessment framework
  • 2. Risk management maturity models
- Identify control effectiveness
  • 1. Risk and control gap analysis
  • 2. Root cause analysis
- Risk analysis methodologies
  • 1. Qualitative and quantitative analysis
  • 2. Risk ownership and accountability
IT Risk Identification26%- Collect and process information
  • 1. Risk aggregation and reporting
  • 2. Risk taxonomy and terminology
  • 3. Business continuity and disaster recovery
- Communicate risk analysis
  • 1. Risk register management
  • 2. Risk reporting and escalation
- Analyze and classify information
  • 1. Risk scenarios and events
  • 2. Threat landscape and vulnerability assessment

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ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Sample Questions (Q893-Q898):

NEW QUESTION # 893
A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 894
According to the Section-302 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, what does certification of reports implies?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Section 302 of Sarbanes-Oxley act has the tremendous impact on the risk management solution adopted by corporations. This section specifies that the reports must be certified by the CEO, CFO, or other senior officer performing similar functions.
Certification of reports establishes:
The signing officer has reviewed the report.

The financial statement does not contain, to the knowledge of signing officer, any materially untrue or

misleading information and represent fairly all financial conditions and results of the enterprise's operations.
The signing officers:

- are responsible for establishing and maintaining internal controls
- have designed such internal controls to ensure that material information relating to the issuer and its consolidated subsidiaries is made - known to such officers by others within those entities, particularly during the period in which the periodic reports are being prepared
- have evaluated the effectiveness of the issuer's internal controls as of a date within 90 days prior to the report
- have presented in the report their conclusions about the effectiveness of their internal controls base on their evaluation as of that date The signing officer have disclosed to external auditors, audit committee, and other directors:

- all significant deficiencies in the design or operation of internal controls which could adversely affect the reliability of the reported financial data
- any fraud, whether or not material, that involves management or other employees who have a significant role in the internal controls of the enterprise The signing officer have indicated in the report any internal controls or changes to those internal

controls which have been implemented since they were evaluated.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The signing officer has evaluated the effectiveness of the issuer's internal controls as of a date within 90 days prior to the report, not at the time of the report.


NEW QUESTION # 895
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 896
A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cost-benefit analysis evaluates whether the benefits (e.g., risk reduction, efficiency) of implementing the new tool justify the costs (e.g., acquisition, maintenance). This analysis is critical for informed decision-making and resource optimization.
Reference:CRISC Manual - Domain 3, Slide 325, 303


NEW QUESTION # 897
A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Answer: C

Explanation:
Understanding the Question:
* The question asks for the best guidance for developing relevant risk scenarios.
Analyzing the Options:
* A. Based on industry trends: Important but may not always be directly relevant to the specific organization.
* B. Mapped to incident response plans: Useful but secondary to ensuring the scenarios are probable.
* C. Related to probable events: Ensures the scenarios are realistic and likely, making them more relevant and actionable.
* D. Aligned with risk management capabilities: Important for managing risks but not as critical as ensuring scenarios are probable.
Detailed Explanation:
* Probable Events: Developing risk scenarios that are based on probable events ensures that the organization is prepared for the most likely risks. This makes risk management efforts more practical and focused on real threats.
* Relevance: By focusing on probable events, the scenarios will be more relevant to the organization's actual risk environment, making it easier to allocate resources and plan responses effectively.
* References:
* CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, emphasizes the importance of identifying and evaluating probable risk events to develop effective risk scenarios.


NEW QUESTION # 898
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