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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Leader (Manager)
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NEW QUESTION # 150
A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 0, aborta 3, presents with her male partner because she has been unable to conceive despite trying for more than 1 year. Her menstrual cycles have been absent for 9 months, and she has occasional mild cyclic pain. She has a medical history of 3 suction curettages. Her BMI is 24.
Investigation results are as follows:
Hysterosalpingogram: Obliterated uterine cavity, no tubal dye spill
Progesterone (midluteal): 48.0 nmol/L (16.4-59.0)
Partner's semen: All parameters normal
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient has secondary amenorrhea, infertility, and a history of multiple uterine curettages, which strongly points toward Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or synechiae). The hysterosalpingogram shows an obliterated uterine cavity and no tubal dye spill-classic for intrauterine synechiae. Her midluteal progesterone level is normal, indicating ovulation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Infertility" section:
"Asherman syndrome results from intrauterine adhesions due to curettage, leading to amenorrhea and infertility. HSG shows an obliterated or irregular uterine cavity." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):
"Candidates should evaluate secondary amenorrhea and interpret imaging such as hysterosalpingogram in the diagnosis of intrauterine abnormalities." Other options are ruled out by the presence of normal ovulation (rules out hypothalamic and PCOS) and by imaging (not suggestive of fibroids or perimenopause).
NEW QUESTION # 151
Which one of the following bodies decides whether a physician is permitted to practise medicine in a province or territory?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 152
A 53-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of believing his neighbor is poisoning him by pumping gas through his home's air vent. He appears distracted, irritable, and is speaking very quickly. He has a family history of depression. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This man exhibits a classic manic episode with psychotic features: persecutory delusions, distractibility, pressured speech, irritability, and possible grandiosity. The chronicity and mood symptoms are most consistent with Bipolar I disorder.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Mood Disorders" Section:
"Bipolar I disorder is characterized by episodes of mania, often with psychotic features.Symptoms include grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, distractibility, and mood-congruent delusions." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize mania and differentiate from brief psychosis or organic causes." Delirium (A) is acute, fluctuating, and involves impaired attention. Malingering (B) requires external gain.
Brief psychotic disorder (C) resolves within 1 month. Brain injury-related psychosis (E) would require a supporting history or findings.
(Part 2 )
NEW QUESTION # 153
A 45-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of a sore left breast. It has become red and swollen. She was previously well, and her menstrual cycles are regular. She has no history of breast cancer, and she has no children. On examination, she has a red, tender, indurated area in her left breast that has only partially responded to oral antibiotics after 10 days. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a non-lactating woman with a partially responsive breast mass after antibiotics, inflammatory breast cancer must be ruled out. A breast biopsy (core or excisional) is indicated to assess for malignancy. Inflammatory breast cancer may mimic mastitis but does not improve with antibiotics.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Breast Disorders:
"In non-lactating women, persistent breast inflammation should raise suspicion for inflammatory breast cancer. If symptoms persist after antibiotic therapy, proceed with imaging and biopsy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Breast Disease:
"Candidates must differentiate between mastitis and inflammatory breast cancer and initiate appropriate investigations such as biopsy when response to antibiotics is incomplete." Options A, D, and E may be appropriate for a confirmed abscess or infectious cause, but further investigation is mandatory in this scenario. NSAIDs (C) are symptomatic but do not address the diagnostic concern.
NEW QUESTION # 154
Your colleague's receptionist asks you to assess her 4-year-old daughter who has had 2 episodesof acute otitis media in the last month. The mother wants you to arrange a consultation with an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist to get a tympanostomy before her daughter starts school. You do not believe there is a surgical indication at this time. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Referrals should be medically indicated. Physicians are not obligated to refer simply because a patient (or colleague) requests it, especially when it may lead to unnecessary care. The ethical and appropriate action is to explain your medical reasoning and decline an unwarranted referral.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Professionalism and Resource Stewardship" Section:
"Physicians have a responsibility to act as gatekeepers to specialist services and should not refer patients when criteria are not met. Explaining the reasoning and declining the request respectfully is appropriate." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Clinical Judgment):
"Candidates must demonstrate ethical reasoning in managing requests for unwarranted interventions." Involving the emergency department (B) or another physician (C) is not appropriate unless there's a true conflict of interest. Calling a consultant (E) may be unnecessary if no medical reason exists.
NEW QUESTION # 155
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