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ACFE CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Objectives
Fraud Prevention and Deterrence	- Fraud Risk Management 1. Fraud risk assessment process 2. Fraud risk identification and analysis 3. Fraud risk mitigation strategies - Fraud Culture and Ethics 1. Anti-fraud organizational culture 2. Ethical frameworks and professional standards 3. Whistleblowing mechanisms and reporting channels - Fraud Schemes and Red Flags 1. Fraud warning signs and red flags 2. Financial statement fraud indicators 3. Occupational fraud schemes - Fraud Prevention Fundamentals 1. Principles of fraud prevention and deterrence 2. Objectives of anti-fraud programs - Fraud Risk Monitoring and Evaluation 1. Ongoing monitoring of fraud risks 2. Evaluation of fraud prevention programs - Anti-Fraud Controls and Governance 1. Internal controls to deter fraud 2. Fraud prevention policies and procedures 3. Corporate governance and oversight

Section

Objectives

Fraud Prevention and Deterrence

- Fraud Risk Management

1. Fraud risk assessment process
2. Fraud risk identification and analysis
3. Fraud risk mitigation strategies

- Fraud Culture and Ethics

1. Anti-fraud organizational culture
2. Ethical frameworks and professional standards
3. Whistleblowing mechanisms and reporting channels

- Fraud Schemes and Red Flags

1. Fraud warning signs and red flags
2. Financial statement fraud indicators
3. Occupational fraud schemes

- Fraud Prevention Fundamentals

1. Principles of fraud prevention and deterrence
2. Objectives of anti-fraud programs

- Fraud Risk Monitoring and Evaluation

1. Ongoing monitoring of fraud risks
2. Evaluation of fraud prevention programs

- Anti-Fraud Controls and Governance

1. Internal controls to deter fraud
2. Fraud prevention policies and procedures
3. Corporate governance and oversight

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ACFE Certified Fraud Examiner - Fraud Prevention and Deterrence Exam Sample Questions (Q111-Q116):

NEW QUESTION # 111
Christopher is conducting an external audit of a company in a jurisdiction that is subject to International Standards on Auditing (ISAs). While conducting his audit procedures, he discovers evidence of a fraud involving Jeffrey, the company's chief executive officer (CEO). Which of the following options is Christopher's BEST response to these findings?

A. Christopher should not disclose his findings to any other parties due to legal liability.
B. Christopher should confront Jeffrey with his audit findings and try to get a confession.
C. Christopher should report his findings to those charged with governance of the organization.
D. Christopher should immediately report his findings to the relevant government authority.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Under ISA 240, when an auditor identifies or suspects fraud involving management, especially senior management, the auditor must communicate the matter to those charged with governance unless clearly inappropriate. Because Jeffrey is the CEO, reporting directly to him would not be appropriate. The auditor should not immediately report to a government authority unless law, regulation, or professional duty requires external reporting. The auditor also should not remain silent simply because legal liability might exist.
Confronting the CEO to obtain a confession is not the auditor's role and could compromise the audit, investigation, or evidence. Those charged with governance, such as the board or audit committee, are responsible for oversight and should be informed of suspected senior management fraud. Therefore, option B is correct.

NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following Is FALSE regarding a fraud risk assessment?

A. The assessment team should consider how employees behave as part of Its assessment
B. The designation of an area as being high risk does not conclusively mean that fraud is occurring there.
C. The objective of the assessment is to provide an estimate of the organization's fraud losses.
D. The assessment should be used to improve employee fraud awareness.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Purpose of Fraud Risk Assessment:
* Fraud risk assessment aims to identify vulnerabilities and evaluate the organization's exposure to fraud risks. It does not specifically provide an estimate of fraud losses.
Why D is Correct:
* Estimating fraud losses is not a standard objective of fraud risk assessments; rather, they focus on identifying and mitigating risks.
Why Other Options are Correct:
* A: Employee behavior is a critical factor in fraud risk.
* B: Fraud awareness is a key outcome of the assessment.
* C: High-risk designations indicate vulnerability, not confirmed fraud.

NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following is included in the G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance?

A. Support for the equal treatment of all members of an organization's governing body.
B. A requirement for a corporate governance framework that protects the exercise of management's rights.
C. A request that governments implement effective internal controls to support good corporate governance practices.
D. An emphasis on the importance of timely, accurate and transparent disclosure mechanisms.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:
The G20/OECD Principles emphasize the importance of full disclosure, including timely, accurate, and transparent mechanisms to maintain investor confidence and market integrity. While they support the equal treatment of shareholders, not members of the governing body (rejecting B), and call for corporate-not government-governance responsibilities (rejecting C). Protecting management's rights (A) is not a governance principle focus.
Reference:Fraud Examiners Manual, 2022, Fraud Prevention and Deterrence, Corporate Governance - Section 4.308.

NEW QUESTION # 114
Professional auditing standards suggest that auditors incorporate an "element of predictability" in the selection of auditing procedures to be performed so that they ensure the same areas are tested in the same manner during each audit.

A. False
B. True

Answer: A

Explanation:
Professional Auditing Standards:
* Standards such as ISA and GAAS emphasize the need for "unpredictability" in audit procedures to prevent fraudulent actors from anticipating audit actions.
Why B is Correct:
* Predictability undermines the effectiveness of audits by allowing individuals to manipulate activities in areas repeatedly tested in the same way.
References:
* ISA standards on fraud risk highlight the importance of incorporating unpredictability in audit approaches.

NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following statements regarding recommended vendor due diligence procedures is MOST ACCURATE?

A. An organization should avoid revealing that it is seeking information about potential vendors prior to starting its relationship with them.
B. An organization should ensure that vendors have their own ethics and compliance program before engaging in any transactions with them.
C. An organization should request that new vendors complete a questionnaire about their background immediately after signing a contract with them.
D. An organization should perform audits of potential vendors before agreeing to conduct business with them.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:
A key element of vendor due diligence is ensuring that third-party vendors have robust ethics and compliance programs. This helps align values, mitigate fraud risks, and establish clear expectations. While audits and questionnaires are good practices, they are not always mandatory or feasible before engagement. Moreover, transparency in seeking vendor information (unlike in A) is a norm in legitimate vetting practices.
Reference:Fraud Examiners Manual, 2022, Fraud Prevention and Deterrence, Managing Third-Party Fraud Risks - Section 4.809.

NEW QUESTION # 116
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