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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 2	Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 3	Diseases and Disease Processes and Application to the Clinical Chart Review: Covers clinical indicators across all ICD-10-CM chapters, applied to chart reviews, with recognition of medications, diagnostic tests, and abbreviations as documentation clarification triggers.
Topic 4	CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q109-Q114):

NEW QUESTION # 109
If a patient is being seen for follow-up and the documentation indicates that the patient was admitted to the hospital 28 days ago with an acute cerebral infarction with remaining right-sided weakness, which of the following diagnoses would be MOST appropriate?

A. Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting right dominant side
B. Other sequelae of cerebral infarction
C. Cerebral infarction, unspecified, hemiparesis affecting right dominant side
D. Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting unspecified side

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the outpatient follow-up setting, when the acute stroke event has occurred in the recent past and the patient is now being evaluated for residual deficits, documentation and coding should focus on the sequelae (late effects) rather than re-coding the acute infarction itself-unless the provider clearly states the stroke is still in the acute phase and being actively treated as such. ACDIS outpatient CDI principles stress selecting the diagnosis that best reflects the reason for today's encounter and the condition being assessed/managed. Here, the ongoing clinical issue driving follow-up care is the persistent neurologic deficit (right-sided weakness/hemiparesis) after the cerebral infarction. Option C is the most specific and clinically accurate because it captures (1) the relationship to the prior cerebral infarction ("following cerebral infarction") and (2) laterality and dominance ("right dominant side"), which improves code specificity and reflects functional impact. Option A incorrectly keeps the focus on an unspecified cerebral infarction rather than the residual deficit, and option D is too nonspecific compared with a clearly described hemiparesis.

NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

A. Flag qualifying patients upon arrival to ED to be placed in observation status vs. admission.
B. Work with IT to increase the unspecified code choices in pick lists in the EHR.
C. Encourage providers to avoid reporting chronic conditions on subsequent admissions.
D. Educate providers about the importance of capturing chronic conditions in documentation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
ACOs commonly focus on strengthening documentation and coding of clinically relevant chronic conditions because many quality and utilization comparisons-including readmission-related performance assessments-are influenced by patient complexity and risk adjustment. When chronic diseases and their specificity (e.g., stage, severity, manifestations) are under-documented, attributed patients can appear "healthier" on paper than they truly are, which can worsen an organization's apparent readmission performance when outcomes are compared to an expected benchmark. Provider education that reinforces documenting active conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated helps ensure an accurate picture of acuity and comorbidity burden. This improves the integrity of risk adjustment inputs and supports fairer benchmarking, while also strengthening medical necessity and continuity-of-care communication across settings. The other choices represent either noncompliant behavior (avoiding condition reporting), poor documentation practice (promoting unspecified codes), or operational maneuvering that may be perceived as gaming rather than a sustainable quality strategy. Therefore, educating providers to capture chronic conditions accurately is the best and most commonly used improvement approach.

NEW QUESTION # 111
After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, "I just don't see how this impacts patient care." Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

A. "It determines what you will be reimbursed."
B. "It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments."
C. "It determines the patient's out of pocket expenses."
D. "It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient."

Answer: D

Explanation:
RAF (Risk Adjustment Factor) is best explained to providers as a population-health and resource-planning tool, not a visit-level payment lever. In outpatient risk adjustment models, diagnoses and demographics are used to estimate the patient's overall disease burden and the expected cost/resources required to meet that patient's healthcare needs. When documentation accurately reflects active conditions and their specificity, the patient's risk profile is represented more realistically. That improves care in practical ways: it supports appropriate allocation of care management services (e.g., nurse navigators, chronic care programs), helps organizations anticipate medication, testing, specialist, and follow-up needs, and improves fairness of performance benchmarking by comparing outcomes and costs against similarly complex patients. Option A is overly simplistic because RAF does not directly determine an individual provider's reimbursement for a given encounter; it influences broader payment and benchmarking methodologies tied to attributed populations. Option C is not what RAF measures, and option D confuses RAF with medical necessity, which is based on clinical documentation and coverage rules, not a risk score.

NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?

A. The patient has history of cirrhosis of the liver and elevated liver enzymes.
B. The patient has history of excessive alcohol use and attends AA meetings.
C. The patient admits to occasional social drinking and recreational drug use.
D. The patient presents with nausea, vomiting, and distended abdomen.

Answer: B

Explanation:
To support a query for alcohol dependence in remission, outpatient CDI practice looks for indicators that reflect a documented history of dependence plus evidence the patient is actively maintaining sobriety or being followed for recovery status. Attendance at AA meetings together with a documented history of excessive alcohol use is a strong, direct indicator of recovery efforts and ongoing monitoring of a prior substance use disorder. This combination supports clarifying whether the provider intends to diagnose alcohol dependence in remission (versus current dependence, use without dependence, or no current disorder). By contrast, cirrhosis and elevated liver enzymes (option A) can be caused by many etiologies and do not, by themselves, establish dependence or remission status. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention (option D) are nonspecific and may suggest acute illness or liver disease but are not specific to remission. Occasional social drinking with recreational drug use (option C) suggests current substance use and would not support "in remission" without additional documentation. Therefore, option B best supports a remission-related query.

NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?

A. Inpatient guidelines emphasize diagnosis sequencing and MS-DRGs
B. Outpatient coding ignores encounter diagnoses
C. Both use the same guidelines with no differences
D. Outpatient guidelines focus on principal diagnoses

Answer: A

Explanation:
A key distinction is that inpatient coding is tightly linked to MS-DRG assignment and inpatient-specific sequencing rules, including selection of the principal diagnosis using the "after study" standard and capture of secondary diagnoses that qualify as complications/comorbidities (CC/MCC) when they meet reporting criteria. This makes diagnosis sequencing and documentation of severity/acuity central to inpatient reimbursement and quality measurement. Outpatient coding does not use MS-DRGs; instead, it typically uses "first-listed" diagnosis concepts for the encounter and assigns ICD-10-CM based on conditions addressed that day, with procedure payment often driven by CPT/HCPCS and, in hospital outpatient departments, packaging/OPPS logic. Therefore, statement A is incorrect (principal diagnosis is not the outpatient focus), C is incorrect (there are meaningful differences), and D is incorrect because outpatient coding absolutely depends on encounter diagnoses being documented and supported. Outpatient CDI education stresses documenting the reason for visit, linking symptoms to confirmed conditions when known, and showing MEAT for chronic conditions so outpatient coding is accurate and defensible.

NEW QUESTION # 114
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