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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Time Value of Money | - Bond and Stock Valuation
|
| Topic 2: Working Capital Management | - Current Liabilities Management
|
| Topic 3: Capital Budgeting | - Cash Flow Estimation
|
| Topic 4: Cost of Capital and Capital Structure | - Cost of Capital
|
| Topic 5: Financial Management Concepts | - Financial Environment
|
| Topic 6: Financial Statement Analysis | - Ratio Analysis
|
>> Training Financial-Management Material <<
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NEW QUESTION # 78
Which group does the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) work with closely to oversee broker- dealers?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is the primary federal regulator of U.S. securities markets, but it works closely with self-regulatory organizations to oversee market participants. The Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) is the main self-regulatory organization responsible for supervising broker- dealers, enforcing rules, and protecting investors. FINRA operates under SEC oversight, creating a layered regulatory framework that combines government authority with industry-specific expertise. This collaboration enhances market integrity and investor protection. Option C correctly identifies FINRA as the SEC's primary partner in broker-dealer oversight.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Why should a firm not carry too much cash?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A firm should avoid holding too much cash because excess cash creates opportunity costs. Cash is highly liquid and useful for transactions, precautionary needs, and flexibility, but it normally earns a lower return than productive investments such as equipment, expansion projects, debt reduction, or marketable securities with higher yields. When a company keeps more cash than needed for operations and risk management, it sacrifices the potential return that those funds could have earned elsewhere. Financial management emphasizes balancing liquidity against profitability. Too little cash can create distress and limit the ability to pay obligations on time, while too much cash can weaken overall performance by leaving resources idle.
Choice C is correct because opportunity cost is the most direct financial drawback of excessive cash balances.
Choice A is incorrect because firms do not pay interest simply for holding cash. Choice B is also incorrect because cash itself does not automatically create higher taxes in the way described. Choice D is not a valid financial objective. Therefore, C is the correct answer because unused cash can reduce shareholder value when it is not deployed in higher-return uses.
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NEW QUESTION # 80
A company has a return on assets (ROA) of 10% and total assets of $500 million.
What is its net income?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Return on assets (ROA) measures how effectively a firm uses its assets to generate profits and is calculated as Net Income ÷ Total Assets. To find net income, the formula is rearranged:
Net Income = ROA × Total Assets.
With an ROA of 10% (0.10) and total assets of $500 million, net income equals $50 million. ROA is a critical profitability metric in financial statement analysis because it links income to the asset base, allowing comparisons across firms and industries regardless of size. A higher ROA indicates more efficient asset utilization. Option C correctly applies the ROA formula and reflects standard financial analysis practice.
NEW QUESTION # 81
What is systematic risk in the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Systematic risk is the portion of total risk that affects the entire market or a broad group of securities and cannot be eliminated through diversification. It arises from economy-wide factors such as changes in interest rates, inflation, recessions, geopolitical events, and overall market sentiment. In the Capital Asset Pricing Model, systematic risk is the only type of risk for which investors are compensated because unsystematic, or firm-specific, risk can be diversified away by holding a well-balanced portfolio. Choice D is correct because it defines systematic risk as market-wide risk that influences virtually all securities to some degree. Choice C refers to company-specific risk, which is unsystematic risk. Choice B is incorrect because poor diversification may leave an investor exposed to more firm-specific risk, but that does not define systematic risk itself.
Choice A is far too extreme and does not capture the finance definition. Financial management uses the CAPM framework to connect systematic risk to required return through beta, which measures a security's sensitivity to movements in the market portfolio. Therefore, D is the correct answer because systematic risk is broad market risk that cannot be removed through diversification.
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NEW QUESTION # 82
Which factor should be considered when valuing preferred stock?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Preferred stock is generally valued based on its fixed dividend payment rather than on expected growth in dividends or significant capital appreciation. In most cases, preferred shares promise a stated dividend amount or a dividend based on a fixed rate applied to par value. Because these dividends are usually constant and do not grow like common stock dividends may, preferred stock is often valued using the perpetuity concept:
Value = Annual Preferred Dividend ÷ Required Rate of Return. This makes the fixed dividend rate the key factor in valuation. Choice B is incorrect because past price alone does not determine intrinsic value. Choice C is incorrect because preferred stock usually offers limited capital appreciation compared with common stock. Choice D is also incorrect because preferred dividends typically do not grow at a variable rate. From a financial management perspective, preferred stock is often viewed as a hybrid security, combining features of both debt and equity. Its valuation depends primarily on the stability and amount of the dividend stream and the return required by investors. Therefore, A is the correct answer because the fixed dividend rate is central to determining preferred stock value.
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NEW QUESTION # 83
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