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Splunk SPLK-5003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Governance, Risk and Compliance	10%	- Security governance 1. Risk management frameworks 2. Policy alignment 3. Compliance requirements
Security Data Management	20%	- Data architecture design 1. Security data onboarding and normalization 2. Data quality and governance 3. Data lifecycle management
Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps	15%	- Security architecture at scale 1. Enterprise security operations design 2. DevSecOps integration 3. Scalable defense strategies
Advanced Automation and Orchestration	10%	- SOAR architecture 1. Workflow automation 2. Security orchestration 3. Playbook design
Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration	15%	- Security control architecture 1. Capability integration 2. Technology selection 3. Control placement strategies
Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis	5%	- Threat intelligence architecture 1. Threat-informed defense 2. Threat intelligence integration 3. Advanced threat analysis
Advanced Incident Response and Management	10%	- Incident response architecture 1. Incident management optimization 2. Investigation processes 3. Response workflows
Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness	15%	- Security metrics and performance 1. Risk measurement 2. Program maturity assessment 3. Continuous improvement processes

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Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Architect Sample Questions (Q145-Q150):

NEW QUESTION # 145
A security architect is tasked with implementing a Zero Trust architecture monitoring strategy. Which data sources are MOST critical to ingest into Splunk to monitor the continuous verification of identities and devices?

A. Web server access logs and database query execution times
B. Physical badge reader logs and HVAC telemetry
C. External DNS query logs and generic network flow data
D. Identity and Access Management (IAM) logs, Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) logs, and Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) telemetry

Answer: D

Explanation:
Zero Trust security models are built on the principle of continuous verification of user identities, device health, and access context before granting access. Therefore, IAM logs, MFA logs (identity verification), and EDR telemetry (device posture/health) are the most critical data sources to monitor the core pillars of a Zero Trust architecture.

NEW QUESTION # 146
A SOC engineer, is evaluating how to use artificial intelligence in order to improve how their organization responds to security threats. Which of the following benefits can the engineer realize from augmenting incident response with artificial intelligence?

A. AI can write incident reports that analysts do not need to review before publishing.
B. AI will require security analysts to spend more time writing detection rules.
C. AI will automatically respond to and remediate all security events without supervision.
D. AI can reduce the amount of time analysts spend collecting and correlating data from security tools.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Artificial intelligence can improve incident response by helping analysts gather, normalize, summarize, and correlate information across multiple security tools faster. This reduces manual investigation effort and allows analysts to focus more time on validation, decision-making, and response actions.

NEW QUESTION # 147
A new system is being built to track the SBOMs for all applications that are used in the company.
What are the primary items this system is tracking?

A. Name, version, license, and supplier
B. Name, branch, license, and supplier
C. Name, version, license, and language
D. Name, version, expiration, and supplier

Answer: A

Explanation:
An SBOM tracks the software components used in an application, including each component's name, version, license, and supplier. This information helps organizations identify vulnerable dependencies, understand software supply chain exposure, and meet compliance or audit requirements.

NEW QUESTION # 148
An architect is designing controls for an application about to go to production. The architect implemented code scanning early in the pipeline. Now they are looking for a tool that will provide a blackbox analysis of the application at runtime. Which of the following tool types would fit this need?

A. Repository Analysis Tool (RAT)
B. Dynamic Application Security Tool (DAST)
C. Static Application Security Tool (SAST)
D. Code Repository YAML (CRY)

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Dynamic Application Security Tool performs blackbox testing against a running application. It analyzes runtime behavior from the outside, helping identify vulnerabilities that appear during execution, such as authentication issues, injection flaws, misconfigurations, and exposed application weaknesses.

NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following is the first step in developing an effective integration strategy for diverse security data sources in a security operations center (SOC)?

A. Begin collecting available logs from all systems.
B. Hire a team of data engineers to manage the integrations.
C. Evaluate security information and event management (SIEM) systems.
D. Define the security use cases and operational requirements that the data will support.

Answer: D

Explanation:
An effective integration strategy should start by defining the security use cases and operational requirements the data must support. This ensures data onboarding is driven by detection, investigation, compliance, response, and reporting needs rather than collecting logs without a clear purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 150
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