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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication
|
| Topic 2: Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment Tools
|
| Topic 3: Security Operations | 34% | - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations
|
| Topic 4: Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Response Process
|
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NEW QUESTION # 70
An analyst reviews the following list of vulnerabilities:
The analyst determines that CVE-2023-8524 is the highest priority for remediation and should be patched immediately. Which of the following did the analyst use to determine the priority of remediation efforts?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The analyst used context awareness to prioritize remediation. Although CVE-2023-8524 does not have the highest CVSS score or the highest number of affected systems, it is weaponized and located on an external-facing asset. External exposure significantly increases the likelihood of exploitation and potential business impact, making it the highest-priority vulnerability to patch.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A security analyst is reviewing an alert about connections from an IT member to the Chief Privacy Officer's (CPO) laptop. There was abnormal network traffic from the CPO's laptop to an unknown server located in the IT legacy network and then to an unknown internet location. Based on the following information:
Which of the following best categorizes the detected activity?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The activity shows an IT member's workstation initiating a Remote Desktop Protocol session to the Chief Privacy Officer's laptop, indicating direct access to the device. After this access, the CPO laptop transferred a large amount of data to an internal server using SMB, followed by a large outbound transfer from that internal server to an external internet address over HTTPS. This sequence indicates that someone with internal privileges accessed the laptop and staged and exfiltrated data through the network. Because the activity originates from an internal IT account and involves misuse of authorized access to extract sensitive data, it is categorized as a malicious insider activity.
NEW QUESTION # 72
An analyst reviews a summarized vulnerability report through a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) reporting tool. The following report correlates asset information from the configuration management database (CMDB) against detected vulnerabilities:
Which of the following servers should the analyst prioritize based on the target value, the risk, and the likelihood of exploitation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
PRODWEB-01 is a high-value, publicly exposed asset with a high-severity vulnerability, making exploitation more likely and its potential impact significant. A patch is also available for immediate remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 73
An incident response team identifies a malicious uniform resource locator (URL) associated with a required business process and performs the following activities:
* Access to the URL has been restricted only to the necessary users through firewall rules and Cloud Security Group rules.
* Additional monitoring has been enabled for traffic related to that site and the allowed users.
* All application servers that need to access that site have been patched with the latest security and software updates.
* Application owners have been notified of the severity and need to remediate this reported issue.
Which of the following best describes the overall mitigation the security team is performing?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The organization cannot completely block the malicious URL because it remains necessary for a legitimate business process. Instead, the security team is implementing compensating controls that reduce exposure while preserving required functionality. These controls include limiting access to explicitly authorized users, restricting network paths through firewall and cloud security-group rules, increasing monitoring, and ensuring that systems interacting with the external resource are fully patched.
A compensating control is an alternative safeguard used when the preferred control-such as completely removing access to the risky resource-is operationally impractical. The important distinction is that the underlying risk still exists; the organization is reducing its likelihood or potential impact through layered protections.
Patching is only one component of the response and therefore does not describe the overall mitigation.
Configuration management concerns maintaining approved system configurations and controlling changes.
Attack surface management focuses on identifying and reducing externally or internally exposed assets and services, but the scenario specifically describes alternative safeguards around a business-required risk.
The combination of access restriction, enhanced monitoring, and system hardening is therefore characteristic of compensating-control implementation.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Vulnerability Mitigation # Compensating Controls # Network Segmentation # Monitoring # Patch Management # Risk-Based Remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A security operations (SOC) manager develops response mechanisms as part of playbook development efforts. The SOC manager needs to accomplish the following:
- Document adversarial activities.
- Map adversarial activities to a linear progression of sequential phases.
- Provide broad coverage of threat actions without addressing specific
tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs).
Which of the following is the most reliable source for this information?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain documents adversarial activities as a linear sequence of phases, providing a high-level view of threat progression without focusing on detailed tactics, techniques, or procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 75
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