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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Policy Configuration and Management | - Policy tuning and exclusions - Prevention and detection policies |
| FortiEDR Architecture and Components | - System architecture and deployment models - FortiEDR components overview (agents, management console, collectors) |
| Threat Detection and Response | - Automated response actions and remediation - Incident detection and alert handling |
| Forensics and Investigation | - Event analysis and telemetry review - Endpoint investigation workflows |
| System Administration and Troubleshooting | - System monitoring and health checks - Troubleshooting common FortiEDR issues |
| Installation and Deployment | - Agent deployment and onboarding - Server and console installation requirements |
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NEW QUESTION # 20
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the exhibit.
An event exception is shown. Which two statements about the exception are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception
/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.
Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.
Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide's FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states "All the Raw Data Items are covered." A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.
Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 23
You discovered that a newly installed collector does not display on the Inventory tab in the central manager.
Which two troubleshooting steps must you perform? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide has a specific troubleshooting section named "A FortiEDR Collector does not display in the INVENTORY tab." It states that after a Collector is first launched, it registers with the FortiEDR Central Manager and appears in the Inventory tab. If it does not appear, the first checks are to confirm that the device where the Collector is installed is powered on and has Internet connectivity, and to validate that ports 8081 and 555 are available and not blocked by another third-party product.
Option B is therefore correct in the exam sense because ports 8081 and 555 must be open for FortiEDR communication. More precisely, the Collector communicates with the Aggregator on port 8081 and the Core on port 555 , not directly to the Central Manager in every architecture. The option wording says "between the collector and the central manager," which is technically loose, but the required troubleshooting item is still the port availability.
Option C is also correct because the same guide says to check that the endpoint is powered on and connected.
In practical FortiEDR troubleshooting, this includes confirming the FortiEDR Collector service/driver are running on the endpoint; otherwise the Collector cannot register or report health.
Option A is not listed in the FortiEDR guide as a required step for this issue. Option D is not the best answer because the guide says logs are generally retrieved when Fortinet Support requests them, and Collector logs can only be exported for Collectors in Running status; a newly installed Collector that does not appear in Inventory cannot normally be selected from Central Manager for log export.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the incident details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this incident are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows an audit/response action stating that IP address 74.125.235.20 was added to malicious IP addresses on firewall FortiGate . This matches the FortiEDR playbook action Block address on Firewall .
The guide states that this action ensures connections to remote malicious addresses associated with the security event are blocked, and that a firewall connector must already be configured for this action. It also explains that a checkmark in a classification column means communication with the affected destination is automatically blocked when a security event with that classification is triggered.
Option C is the second best answer because FortiEDR events are initially classified by FortiEDR detection logic/Core, and the guide states that classifications are initially determined by the Core but can later be changed automatically by FortiEDR Cloud Service or manually. The exhibit shows "Classification Changed To: Suspicious (By Fortinet)" , but it does not say the event was manually classified by an administrator. So the event classification process is FortiEDR-driven, with later Fortinet/FCS-style automatic classification possible.
Option B is wrong. The exhibit shows one raw-data row with device cwinserv-32 +2 , which indicates more than one affected device/raw item is represented in the aggregation. So it did not occur on only one device.
Option D is wrong because the incident rows clearly show Unhandled . The guide states that security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and the unread/unhandled status helps users track whether anyone has read and handled the event.
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NEW QUESTION # 25
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