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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Governance, Risk, and Compliance | 20% | - Business impact analysis - Risk management frameworks and methodologies - Compliance and regulatory requirements - Security governance policies and procedures |
| Topic 2: Security Operations | 22% | - Monitoring, logging, and SIEM/SOAR operations - Business continuity and disaster recovery - Vulnerability management and penetration testing concepts - Threat hunting and intelligence - Incident response and digital forensics |
| Topic 3: Security Engineering | 31% | - Cryptography and PKI - Identity and access management (IAM) - Application security (SAST/DAST/SCA) - Secure coding practices and secure SDLC - Security automation and IaC (Infrastructure as Code) - Endpoint and mobile security |
| Topic 4: Security Architecture | 27% | - Security requirements analysis - Secure network architecture design - Cloud and hybrid infrastructure security - Resilient system design - Zero Trust architecture implementation |
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NEW QUESTION # 358
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect
Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
"Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research
NEW QUESTION # 359
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
A: Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
B: Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
D: Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide" ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"
NEW QUESTION # 360
A software vendor provides routine functionality and security updates to its global customer base.
The vendor would like to ensure distributed updates are authorized, originate from only the company, and have not been modified by others. Which of the following solutions best supports these objectives?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Code signing ensures that updates are authentic, have not been tampered with, and originate from the authorized software vendor. It uses digital signatures to verify the integrity and origin of the update, fulfilling the vendor's requirements to secure distributed updates.
NEW QUESTION # 361
A security operations analyst is reviewing network traffic baselines for nightly database backups. Given the following information:
Which of the following should the security analyst do next?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 362
A company's internal network is experiencing a security breach, and the threat actor is still active. Due to business requirements, users in this environment are allowed to utilize multiple machines at the same time.
Given the following log snippet:
Which of the following accounts should a security analyst disable to best contain the incident without impacting valid users?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Useruser-cis showing anomalous behavior across multiple machines, attempting to run administrative tools such as cmd.exe and appwiz.CPL, which are commonly used by attackers for system modification. The activity pattern suggests a lateral movement attempt, potentially indicating a compromised account.
* user-a (A)anduser-b (B)attempted to run applications but only on one machine, suggesting less likelihood of compromise.
* user-d (D)was blocked running cmd.com, but user-c's pattern is more consistent with an attack technique.
NEW QUESTION # 363
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