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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Integration and Security Fabric | 15% | - FortiXDR deployment and configuration - Fortinet Security Fabric integration |
| Topic 2: Security Settings and Policies | 25% | - Security policies configuration - Communication control policies - Fortinet Cloud Service (FCS) integration - Playbooks creation and management |
| Topic 3: Events, Forensics, and Threat Hunting | 25% | - Forensic analysis and incident investigation - Threat hunting profiles and queries - Security event and alert analysis - Threat hunting data interpretation |
| Topic 4: FortiEDR System Architecture and Deployment | 25% | - Architecture and technical positioning - Inventory management and system tools - Installation and deployment process - API-based management operations - Multi-tenancy deployment |
| Topic 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting | 10% | - Performance and issue diagnosis - Log and alert troubleshooting - System monitoring and health checks |
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NEW QUESTION # 36
You added three new applications to FortiEDR using only the Path attribute. What are two expected outcomes of this configuration? (Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that newly added applications are disabled by default , which means they are not blocked unless enabled. The guide further explains that the default state can be changed by enabling the Enable Default application state option in the Application Control Manager settings. Therefore, option A is correct.
Option B is also correct because Application Control allows an application to be defined by Hash or by any combination of File Name / Path / Signer . The guide says that the Path field specifies the path to the executable file of the application to be blocked. When using path-based matching, the enforcement is tied to the specified path criteria, not to every possible location of the same file.
Option C is wrong because the file name does not also need to match when only the Path attribute is used.
Option D is wrong because blocking all instances regardless of location applies when only the File Name field is used, not when the match is path-specific. The guide explicitly states that if only the File Name field is filled, the application is blocked no matter where the executable appears.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the incident details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this incident are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows an audit/response action stating that IP address 74.125.235.20 was added to malicious IP addresses on firewall FortiGate . This matches the FortiEDR playbook action Block address on Firewall .
The guide states that this action ensures connections to remote malicious addresses associated with the security event are blocked, and that a firewall connector must already be configured for this action. It also explains that a checkmark in a classification column means communication with the affected destination is automatically blocked when a security event with that classification is triggered.
Option C is the second best answer because FortiEDR events are initially classified by FortiEDR detection logic/Core, and the guide states that classifications are initially determined by the Core but can later be changed automatically by FortiEDR Cloud Service or manually. The exhibit shows "Classification Changed To: Suspicious (By Fortinet)" , but it does not say the event was manually classified by an administrator. So the event classification process is FortiEDR-driven, with later Fortinet/FCS-style automatic classification possible.
Option B is wrong. The exhibit shows one raw-data row with device cwinserv-32 +2 , which indicates more than one affected device/raw item is represented in the aggregation. So it did not occur on only one device.
Option D is wrong because the incident rows clearly show Unhandled . The guide states that security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and the unread/unhandled status helps users track whether anyone has read and handled the event.
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NEW QUESTION # 38
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 39
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the investigation view shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows a green checkmark in the Exception column for the filezilla.exe event. In FortiEDR, an exception means a whitelist has been created for a specific flow/security-event pattern. The guide states that exceptions limit enforcement of a rule and that after an exception is defined, identical new events are no longer triggered. It also explains that past security events display an icon indicating that an exception has been defined for them.
The exhibit also shows the event flow ending in filezilla.exe with a red highlighted activity and a blocked symbol. In the Incidents/Investigation workflow, FortiEDR represents blocked policy violations as security events, and the guide explains that FortiEDR can enforce policy by blocking malicious connection establishment requests to prevent exfiltration. It also states that Block means the malicious exfiltration or file- changing attempt was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Refer to the exhibit.
An event exception is shown. Which two statements about the exception are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception
/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.
Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.
Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide's FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states "All the Raw Data Items are covered." A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.
Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.
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NEW QUESTION # 41
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