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| Certification Vendor: | American Hospital Association Certification Center (AHA-CC) / ASHRM |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CPHRM Certification Examination |
| Exam Number: | CPHRM |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Computer-based testing |
| Exam Price: | $275–$400 USD (varies by membership status and region) |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Exam Duration: | 180 minutes |
| Real Exam Qty: | 175 multiple-choice (150 scored + 25 unscored pretest) |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Passing Score: | Scaled score 500 (scale 200–800) |
| Recommended Training: | AHA Certification Preparation Resources ASHRM CPHRM Exam Preparation Course |
| Exam Registration: | PSI Online Exam Scheduling AHA Certification Center CPHRM Registration |
| Sample Questions: | ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Computer-based testing delivered at PSI testing centers or online proctored format (depending on region) |
| Pre Condition: | Recommended: at least 3 years of experience in healthcare risk management or related healthcare field |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.aha.org/certification-center/cphrm |
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NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following concerns meets the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation 42 CFR §482.12 classification as a grievance?
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation define a grievance as a formal or informal written or verbal complaint made by a patient or representative regarding care, abuse, neglect, compliance with regulations, or patient rights that is not resolved at the time of the complaint by staff present.
A verbal complaint that cannot be resolved immediately by current staff and whose resolution is postponed qualifies as a grievance under 42 CFR §482.12. Such grievances require formal investigation, documentation, and written response within established timeframes.
Billing issues generally fall outside the grievance definition unless they involve quality of care or patient rights concerns. Information from patient satisfaction surveys is not automatically classified as a grievance unless the patient specifically requests investigation or follow-up. Post-discharge verbal concerns may constitute grievances depending on context, but the key CMS criterion is whether the complaint could not be resolved at the time it was expressed.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize proper classification, timely response, documentation, and board oversight of grievance processes. Therefore, a verbal complaint that cannot be resolved immediately and is deferred meets CMS grievance criteria.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which type of information was associated with the former HIPDB (now within NPDB) but not the original NPDB focus?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The HIPDB was established to help combathealthcare fraud and abuse, while the NPDB historically focused on practitioner competence and professional conduct (including items like malpractice payments and certain adverse actions). HRSA explains that HIPDB is no longer separate and that its information is now collected and disclosed through the NPDB following the 2013 merger. For risk managers, the objective is to ensure credentialing, contracting, and compliance teams understand the expanded scope and proper use:
querying supports safer hiring/privileging decisions and reduces negligent credentialing risk, while reporting supports system integrity. Organizations must also ensure due process and correct categorization of reportable events to avoid wrongful reporting exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following items should be part of a claim file?
* peer review reports or data
* correspondence with attorneys and investigators
* literature search
* verification of settlement authority
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, claim files must be carefully structured to preserve confidentiality, protect privilege, and support effective defense strategy. A claim file typically includes correspondence with attorneys and investigators, as this documentation reflects legal strategy, communications, and case development. Literature searches relevant to standards of care may also be included to assist counsel in evaluating clinical issues and expert testimony preparation. Verification of settlement authority is essential documentation to confirm that appropriate approvals were obtained before resolving a claim.
Peer review reports or data, however, should not be included in the claim file. Peer review materials are generally protected under state peer review statutes and federal patient safety privilege provisions.
Commingling peer review documents within the claims file may jeopardize privilege protections and increase the risk of discoverability in litigation. Maintaining separation between peer review files and claim files is a critical risk management practice.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize preservation of privilege, organized documentation, and compliance with legal standards. Therefore, correspondence, literature searches, and settlement authority verification belong in the claim file, while peer review reports should be maintained separately.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles recognized by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a properly executed advance directive carries legal authority when a patient lacks decision-making capacity. The physician has assessed that the patient is terminally ill and lacks capacity, triggering activation of the advance directive. If the directive clearly states refusal of life-prolonging treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration, those wishes must be honored in accordance with state law and the Patient Self-Determination Act framework.
Patient autonomy is a foundational ethical and legal principle in health care. Once capacity is lost, previously expressed wishes through a valid advance directive govern care decisions. Family members do not have authority to override a valid directive unless legal defects or ambiguity exist. Their disagreement does not negate the patient's documented preferences.
Although ethics consultation can be helpful in managing conflict, the directive here is described as properly executed and clear. Additional determination of capacity is unnecessary because the physician has already made that assessment.
Risk management objectives emphasize compliance with advance directive statutes, respect for patient autonomy, and reduction of liability through adherence to documented patient wishes. Therefore, the appropriate advice is to support the physician in honoring the advance directive.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A clear directive to a nurse is:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clear directives are specific, measurable, and time-bound-reducing ambiguity and variability that drive frontline error. "Monitor every so often" becomes safer when translated into a defined interval (e.g., every 15 minutes for the first hour, then hourly), with documentation requirements and escalation triggers. Risk management objectives emphasize standard work and reliable monitoring for high-risk equipment such as infusion pumps because device malfunction or programming errors can rapidly cause harm. Clear directives also support accountability and defensibility: they demonstrate the organization defined expectations and trained staff accordingly. Vague instructions ("be careful") do not reliably change behavior or outcomes. In high-reliability care, clarity is a safety barrier: it reduces cognitive load, prevents missed steps, and improves handoffs between staff by making the plan visible and verifiable.
NEW QUESTION # 66
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