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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Scholar
|
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質問 # 286
A 38-year-old woman presents with diffuse nodularity in the outer upper quadrant of her right breast. There is no obvious dominant mass, nipple discharge, or skin dimpling. There are no palpable lymph nodes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
正解：D
解説：
Fibrocystic change is the most common benign breast condition in women of reproductive age. It typically presents with diffuse nodularity or "lumpy" areas, especially in the upper outer quadrant, and varies with the menstrual cycle. No dominant mass or systemic signs are expected.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Benign Breast Conditions":
"Fibrocystic changes often present with bilateral or unilateral nodularity, most commonly in the upper outer quadrants, without discrete masses." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):
"Candidates must differentiate benign breast conditions from malignant ones based on presentation and physical exam findings." Paget disease (B) presents with nipple changes. Intraductal carcinoma (C) typically shows a discrete mass or suspicious features. Phyllodes tumours are usually well-circumscribed. Mastitis (E) is inflammatory and associated with erythema, fever, and tenderness.
質問 # 287
A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain.
The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex. Which one of the following is the best next step in management?
正解：E
解説：
In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags - loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal - the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Depression:
"Patients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:
"Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal." Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.
質問 # 288
You are working in a busy family practice. Your colleague's 48-year-old female patient presents with a 6- month history of fatigue and gastrointestinal symptoms. A recent colonoscopy was normal. Her chart indicates multiple investigations for similar symptoms over the past 2 years, all of which have been non- revealing. Your working diagnosis is somatic symptom disorder. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
正解：B
解説：
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder. It helps patients reframe dysfunctional thoughts and improve coping strategies for perceived physical symptoms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders":
"CBT is first-line for somatic symptom disorder. Antidepressants may be considered if comorbid depression or anxiety is present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-2: Somatic Symptom Disorders):
"Candidates must manage somatic symptom disorder with appropriate psychosocial interventions." Citalopram (B) or amitriptyline (E) may be used adjunctively if mood symptoms are prominent. Risperidone (C) and ERP (D) are not indicated.
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質問 # 289
You are 1 of 3 physicians on an interdisciplinary brain injury team at a hospital. The team ' s physiotherapist has concerns regarding a patient ' s medication. Which one of the following is the most appropriate course of action for communicating with the physiotherapist?
正解：B
解説：
In an interdisciplinary hospital team, sharing relevant clinical information with other regulated health professionals involved in the patient's care is generally appropriate under the "circle of care" principle. The physiotherapist's concern about medication is clinically relevant because medications can affect mobility, cognition, balance, blood pressure, sedation, and rehabilitation safety-issues directly within the physiotherapist's role. Requiring written consent (A) is unnecessarily restrictive in routine team-based care; implied consent is typically sufficient when information sharing is for the patient's ongoing treatment and limited to what is necessary. Refusing to discuss because the physiotherapist does not prescribe (B) misunderstands collaborative care: team members must understand medication effects to plan safe therapy.
Contacting the patient each time (C) is usually not required for routine care communication and may delay addressing a potential safety issue. Even if you are not the physician most responsible, you should respond within your knowledge, clarify uncertainties, and coordinate with the most responsible physician as needed, ensuring timely, patient-centered care.
質問 # 290
A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of a low-grade fever and a painful left breast mass. On examination, there is a fluctuant erythematous tender mass with surrounding induration in the left breast and enlarged lymph nodes in the left axilla. An ultrasound shows a loculated cystic mass. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
正解：D
解説：
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
A fluctuant, erythematous, tender breast mass with systemic signs (fever, lymphadenopathy) and ultrasound showing a cystic lesion is diagnostic for a breast abscess. It commonly arises from untreated mastitis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery, "Breast Disease":
"Abscess presents as a fluctuant, erythematous mass. Ultrasound confirms loculated fluid. Treatment includes drainage and antibiotics." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-1: Breast Conditions):
"Candidates must identify signs of infection and abscess and differentiate from malignancy or benign lesions." Fibroadenoma (C) is non-tender, mobile, and firm. Ductal ectasia (B) causes nipple discharge. Fibrocystic changes (D) are bilateral and cyclic. Inflammatory breast cancer (E) is rapidly progressive but lacks fluctuation and cystic features.
質問 # 291
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