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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | - Communication
|
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
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NEW QUESTION # 284
A 51-year-old man comes to your clinic for follow-up regarding his type 1 diabetes. His hemoglobin A1c is
12.5% (normal 4-6%). He has never had such high blood sugar results. He drinks 2 beers per night to help with sleep. He is not well rested because he has been sleeping on a friend's couch since losing his job last year. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient is experiencing social instability (homelessness, job loss) likely contributing to poorly controlled diabetes. Before investigating or prescribing further, it is essential to address his ability to afford and manage self-monitoring and insulin.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes:
"Social determinants such as housing insecurity and financial barriers significantly affect diabetes self- management. Addressing access to glucose monitoring and insulin is critical." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Chronic Disease Management:
"Candidates must assess barriers to effective disease control, including financial and psychosocial limitations." Antidepressants (B) may be helpful later if depression is suspected. Thyroid testing (C) is not the priority. A dietitian (D) may help long-term, but immediate access and adherence are more urgent.
NEW QUESTION # 285
A 20-year-old man is brought by a friend to the emergency department with an elevated temperature, generalized muscle rigidity, hypovolemia, a fluctuating level of consciousness, and impaired attention. The patient also may be responding to auditory hallucinations. The friend informs you that the patient overdosed with a prescribed medication. Which one of the following medications is most likely to cause these symptoms?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This presentation is classic for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic drugs (particularly dopamine antagonists like risperidone). Features include hyperthermia, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome":
"NMS is associated with antipsychotic use. Key features: hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction. Elevated CK, leukocytosis often present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Adverse Effects of Psychotropics):
"Candidates must recognize and manage neuroleptic malignant syndrome and differentiate it from other drug toxicities." Amitriptyline (B) overdose causes anticholinergic symptoms. Lamotrigine (A) causes rash or seizures in toxicity. Lithium (D) leads to tremor, ataxia, and GI upset. Lorazepam (E) causes CNS depression, not rigidity or fever.
NEW QUESTION # 286
An 83-year-old woman presents to your office with a 2-day history of confusion. Her past medical history is significant for lung cancer, and she is being treated with radiation. On physical examination, she is euvolemic.
Her blood work reveals a serum sodium of 118 mmol/L (135-140) as compared with 134 mmol/L (8 days ago). Which one of the following will be most helpful in establishing the cause of her laboratory abnormality?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Hyponatremia in a patient with lung cancer and euvolemia strongly suggests syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), especially from small cell carcinoma. Serum osmolality is the best initial test to confirm hypotonic hyponatremia and distinguish true hyponatremia from pseudohyponatremia or other causes.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Hyponatremia":
"Serum osmolality helps classify hyponatremia as hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic. SIADH typically causes hypotonic hyponatremia in euvolemic patients." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Electrolyte Disorders):
"Candidates must evaluate the type and cause of hyponatremia using clinical status and laboratory tests including serum osmolality." Urine sodium (B) is useful after confirming hypotonicity. PTHrP (E) is associated with hypercalcemia of malignancy, not hyponatremia. Urinalysis (A) and CrCl (D) are less directly informative.
NEW QUESTION # 287
A 72-year-old man has had 4 episodes of weakness in her right arm and leg lasting 10 to 15 minutes each.
During 1 episode, she had difficulty speaking and had blurring of the vision in the left eye. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
These are recurrent, brief (10-15 minute), fully resolving focal neurologic deficits, which fits transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) rather than completed stroke. The combination of right-sided arm and leg weakness and difficulty speaking localizes to the left cerebral hemisphere (dominant hemisphere for language in most patients). The additional symptom of transient blurring of vision in the left eye is characteristic of amaurosis fugax, caused by retinal ischemia from emboli or hypoperfusion in the ipsilateral internal carotid circulation.
Together, this pattern strongly suggests left internal carotid artery occlusive disease (e.g., high-grade stenosis with artery-to-artery embolization).
Left MCA thrombosis would typically produce persistent deficits rather than multiple short, self-resolving episodes. Intracerebral hemorrhage usually presents with sudden severe symptoms that do not resolve quickly and often includes headache or reduced consciousness. Epilepsy would more likely cause positive symptoms (jerking, automatisms) and postictal confusion. Vertebrobasilar disease causes posterior circulation symptoms (vertigo, diplopia, ataxia), not unilateral monocular vision loss plus contralateral weakness.
NEW QUESTION # 288
A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic with worsening lower leg edema. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and a history of heavy drinking. On examination, he is pale and has a BMI of 35. Vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 110/60 mm Hg
Heart rate: 102/min
Temperature: Afebrile
His jugular venous pressure is 4 cm above the sternal angle. Cardiac auscultation is normal, and his lungs are clear. His liver is not palpable; he has abdominal distension, bulging flanks, and pitting edema below the knees. While awaiting test results, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient has signs suggestive of decompensated liver cirrhosis (ascites, peripheral edema, low-normal BP, alcohol use, abdominal distension). Sodium restriction is the cornerstone of first-line management to prevent fluid retention in cirrhotic ascites.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Cirrhosis and Ascites" Section:
"Sodium restriction (<2 g/day) is the most important non-pharmacologic management for ascites. Fluid restriction is added only in cases of severe hyponatremia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-5: Liver Disease):
"Candidates must manage ascites conservatively using sodium restriction, with diuretics added as needed." Lactulose (E) is used for hepatic encephalopathy, not ascites. Ramipril (B) may worsen renal function in cirrhosis. Nadolol (C) is used for variceal bleeding prophylaxis. Compression stockings (D) are not helpful in ascites-related edema.
NEW QUESTION # 289
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