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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Advanced Incident Response and Management | 10% | - Incident response architecture
- 1. Incident management optimization
- 2. Response workflows
- 3. Investigation processes
|
| Governance, Risk and Compliance | 10% | - Security governance
- 1. Compliance requirements
- 2. Policy alignment
- 3. Risk management frameworks
|
| Security Data Management | 20% | - Data architecture design
- 1. Data lifecycle management
- 2. Data quality and governance
- 3. Security data onboarding and normalization
|
| Advanced Automation and Orchestration | 10% | - SOAR architecture
- 1. Playbook design
- 2. Security orchestration
- 3. Workflow automation
|
| Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness | 15% | - Security metrics and performance
- 1. Program maturity assessment
- 2. Continuous improvement processes
- 3. Risk measurement
|
| Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis | 5% | - Threat intelligence architecture
- 1. Advanced threat analysis
- 2. Threat intelligence integration
- 3. Threat-informed defense
|
| Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps | 15% | - Security architecture at scale
- 1. Scalable defense strategies
- 2. DevSecOps integration
- 3. Enterprise security operations design
|
| Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration | 15% | - Security control architecture
- 1. Capability integration
- 2. Technology selection
- 3. Control placement strategies
|
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Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Architect Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):
NEW QUESTION # 19
A financial institution requires that all security event data is retained in a highly available, tamper-evident state for compliance purposes. Which Splunk architectural feature should the Cybersecurity Defense Architect recommend to ensure data immutability and high availability?
- A. Data Model Acceleration (DMA)
- B. Universal Forwarder acknowledgment (useACK)
- C. Search Head Clustering with Summary Indexing
- D. Indexer Clustering with SmartStore and Data Integrity Control enabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Indexer Clustering ensures high availability by maintaining multiple copies of data across peer nodes. Enabling Data Integrity Control provides a cryptographic mechanism (using hashes) to verify that the data has not been tampered with since it was originally indexed, which is a critical requirement for compliance and forensic investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 20
How can an organization best improve its Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) metrics?
- A. Implement SOAR playbooks to automatically isolate infected endpoints.
- B. Automatically page incident responders when low severity alerts occur.
- C. Use a message bus to stream data to a data lake for trend analysis.
- D. Automatically empty spam folders from end users' mailboxes every 30 days.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SOAR playbooks improve Mean Time to Respond by automating repeatable containment actions, such as isolating infected endpoints. This reduces manual response delays and helps responders act faster when confirmed threats require immediate containment.
NEW QUESTION # 21
During a SOC process and workflow review, the SOC manager observes that the analysts are spending a great deal of time jumping between the EDR, remote access, and IAM consoles to contextualize a finding. Which of the following will reduce the time to resolution with these issues in mind?
- A. Automate the initial triage and present results in the related finding.
- B. Automate the incident reporting in the related finding.
- C. Automate the quarantine of the entity in the related finding.
- D. Automate the vulnerability scanning for the entity in the related finding.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automating initial triage and presenting the results in the finding reduces the need for analysts to manually switch between EDR, remote access, and IAM consoles. This speeds investigation by collecting and correlating relevant context up front, helping analysts reach a decision and resolve the issue faster.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A security architect is working with their cloud architect peer to enable additional controls in the non-production cloud environment. During testing, it is shown that the implementation of four of these controls will have a significant cost associated with them. Which of the following actions needs to be done before presenting their findings to the CISO?
- A. Pick one of the controls to recommend for implementation
- B. Review controls with compliance to evaluate their need
- C. Review the burn down on current cloud contract and remaining budget
- D. Understand the control requirements and cost versus operational benefit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before presenting to the CISO, the architect should understand why each control is required, what risk it reduces, and whether the expected security and operational benefit justifies the cost.
This allows leadership to make an informed decision based on risk, value, and business impact rather than cost alone.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Of the following options, which is the best approach to implementing an effective business continuity plan?
- A. Define recovery objectives and regularly test the plan.
- B. Create a one-time plan.
- C. Develop the plan based on IT infrastructure.
- D. Store data backups offsite.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An effective business continuity plan must define clear recovery objectives, such as acceptable downtime and data loss, and be tested regularly to confirm it works during real disruptions.
Regular testing also helps identify gaps before an actual incident occurs.
NEW QUESTION # 24
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