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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Collaborator
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NEW QUESTION # 268
A 67-year-old woman presents with headaches, muscle weakness, pain in her shoulders and hips, weight loss, and depression. While also arranging appropriate investigations to confirm a diagnosis, which one of the following is the most important objective of treatment?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This clinical picture suggests giant cell arteritis (GCA) associated with polymyalgia rheumatica: new-onset headache in an older patient, proximal muscle pain and stiffness (shoulders and hips), systemic symptoms (weight loss), and mood changes. MCCQE objectives emphasize that GCA is a medical emergency because inflammation of the temporal and other cranial arteries can lead to irreversible vision loss due to ischemic optic neuropathy.
The most important objective of treatment is prevention of blindness , which requires prompt initiation of high-dose corticosteroids-often before confirmatory temporal artery biopsy-to reduce arterial inflammation and prevent vascular occlusion. While improving musculoskeletal pain and headache are important symptomatic goals, they are secondary to preventing permanent complications. Jaw claudication is a symptom of arterial insufficiency but not itself the primary outcome to prevent.
Early recognition and immediate corticosteroid therapy significantly reduce the risk of bilateral, permanent visual loss. Therefore, prevention of blindness is the most critical treatment objective.
NEW QUESTION # 269
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks ' gestation. Her blood pressure is
130/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction.
First-trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 270
A 40-year-old woman has not left her house for 6 months. She says that she is trying to avoid the intense anxiety, palpitations, tremors, sweating, dizziness, choking sensation, and breathlessness that develops when she leaves home. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient's symptoms are consistent with panic disorder with agoraphobia , characterized by recurrent panic attacks and avoidance of places where escape may be difficult. She has avoided leaving her home for 6 months due to fear of panic symptoms (palpitations, tremors, sweating, dyspnea, choking sensation), which is classic for agoraphobia.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-line management includes cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) with graded exposure therapy , which involves gradual, systematic exposure to feared situations (e.g., short walks progressing to longer distances). Encouraging incremental exposure directly addresses avoidance behavior and reduces anxiety over time.
Lithium is used for bipolar disorder, not panic disorder. Chlorpromazine (an antipsychotic) is not first-line and carries unnecessary side effects. Reassurance alone is insufficient because panic disorder significantly impairs functioning. Hospitalization is not indicated unless there is suicidality or inability to care for oneself.
Therefore, gradual exposure through increasing walks is the most appropriate next step, consistent with evidence-based management of panic disorder with agoraphobia.
NEW QUESTION # 271
You are providing medical care to a 78-year-old man and notice a skin lesion which you suspect is malignant melanoma. He has been living in a long-term care facility for 2 years because of incontinence, mobility and vision problems. He is well-liked by facility staff and residents, manages his own affairs and communicates clearly. He has designated his daughter to be his substitute decision-maker and has signed a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. Which one of the following is the best next step in providing care to this patient for his skin lesion?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient is competent and capable of making his own health decisions. A DNR order and naming a substitute decision-maker apply only when a patient lacks capacity. The next step is to discuss the suspected diagnosis with the patient and explore his preferences.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Consent and Capacity:
"Competent patients retain full decision-making authority. Substitute decision-makers are only engaged when the patient lacks capacity. DNR applies to resuscitation, not other medical decisions." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Capacity, Consent, Advance Directives:
"Candidates must recognize that capable patients should be directly involved in decisions. Substitute decision- makers are not invoked unless the patient is incapable." Option A implies a breach of confidentiality without permission. Option C is premature. Option D bypasses informed consent. Option E misinterprets the DNR's scope.
NEW QUESTION # 272
While covering for a colleague away on holidays, you receive the following laboratory results for one of her patients, a 24-year-old woman:
White blood cell count: 10 × 10#/L (4-10)
Hemoglobin: 80 g/L (123-157)
Mean corpuscular volume: 76 fL (80-100)
Platelet count: 150 × 10#/L (130-400)
You have arranged a follow-up appointment for the patient with your colleague. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
These results show a significant anemia (Hb 80 g/L) with microcytosis (MCV 76 fL) and otherwise preserved cell lines (WBC at the upper end of normal; platelets normal). MCCQE objectives emphasize using CBC patterns to classify anemia and prioritize common causes. In a young woman, the most likely cause of microcytic anemia is iron deficiency , most often due to menstrual blood loss and/or inadequate iron intake, and it can be severe.
Leukemia and myelodysplasia typically present with abnormalities in multiple cell lines (e.g., leukocytosis with blasts or cytopenias) and are less consistent with an isolated microcytic anemia and normal platelets.
Anemia of chronic disease is usually normocytic or mildly microcytic and is less likely to produce such a low hemoglobin without an obvious chronic inflammatory condition. Thalassemia trait classically has marked microcytosis with relatively preserved hemoglobin (often only mild anemia) and is suggested by a lifelong history and family/ethnic background. The next clinical step (at follow-up) would be iron studies (ferritin first) and assessment for bleeding sources.
NEW QUESTION # 273
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