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NCLEX-RN is a licensing examination for registered nurses in the United States and Canada. It is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to ensure that nurses have the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective care to patients. NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, meaning that the difficulty of the questions adapts to the test-taker's level of knowledge. The NCLEX-RN is a comprehensive exam, covering a range of nursing topics such as pharmacology, health promotion, and patient care. Passing the NCLEX-RN is a requirement to obtain a nursing license and practice as a registered nurse in the United States and Canada.
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NCLEX-RN exam consists of multiple-choice questions that cover a variety of nursing topics, including health promotion and maintenance, pharmacology, patient care, and safety. NCLEX-RN exam is computerized and adaptive, meaning that the questions are tailored to the individual candidate's ability level. NCLEX-RN Exam is designed to be challenging, and candidates must demonstrate a high level of knowledge and critical thinking skills in order to pass.
NEW QUESTION # 818
A 32-year-old female client is being treated for Guillain- Barré syndrome. She complains of gradually increasing muscle weakness over the past several days. She has noticed an increased difficulty in ambulating and fell yesterday. When conducting a nursing assessment, which finding would indicate a need for immediate further evaluation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Headaches are not associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome. (B) Loss of superficial and deep tendon reflexes is expected with this diagnosis. (C) Complaints of shortness of breath must be further evaluated.
Forty percent of all clients have some detectable respiratory weakness and should be prepared for a possible tracheostomy. Pneumonia is also a common complication of this syndrome. (D) Facial paralysis is expected and is not considered abnormal.
NEW QUESTION # 819
A client reports to the nurse that the voices are practically nonstop and that he needs to leave the hospital immediately to find his girlfriend and kill her. The best verbal response to the client by the nurse at this time is:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This response validates the client's experience and presents reality to him. (B) This nontherapeutic response minimizes and dismisses the client's verbalized experience. (C) This response can be interpreted by a paranoid client as a threat, thereby increasing the client's potential for violence and loss of control. (D) This response is also threatening. The client's behavior does not call for restraints because he has not lost control or hurt anyone. If seclusion or restraints were indicated, the nurse should never confront the client alone.
NEW QUESTION # 820
A 45-year-old client diagnosed with major depression is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in the morning. Which of the following medications are routinely administered either before or during ECT?
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Thioridazine (an antipsychotic drug), lithium (an antimanic drug), and benztropine (an antiparkinsonism agent) are generally administered to treat schizophrenic and bipolar disorders. (B) Atropine (a cholinergic blocker), sodium brevitol (a shortacting anesthetic), and succinylcholine (a neuromuscular blocker) are administered either before or during ECT to coun teract bradycardia and to provide anesthesia and total muscle relaxation. (C) These are electrolyte substances administered to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the body. (D) Carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant), haldoperidol (an antipsychotic), and trihexyphenydyl (an antiparkinsonism agent) are usually administered in psychiatric settings to control problems associated with psychotic behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 821
A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is started on an aminophylline infusion. Three days later she is breathing easier. A serum theophylline level is drawn. Which of the following values represents a therapeutic level?
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The therapeutic blood level range of theophylline is 10-20 mg/mL. Therapeutic drug monitoring determines effective drug dosages and prevents toxicity. (B, D) This value is a toxic level of the drug. (C) This value is a nontherapeutic level of the drug.
NEW QUESTION # 822
The nurse teaches a pregnant client that a high-risk symptom occurring at any time during pregnancy that needs to be reported immediately to a healthcare provider is:
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Constipation is a result of decreased peristalsis due to smooth muscle relaxation related to changing progesterone levels that occur during pregnancy. (B) Urinary frequency is a common result of the increasing size of the uterus and the resulting pressure it places on the bladder. (C) With the increased vascularity and hypertrophy of the mammary alveoli due to estrogen and progesterone level changes, the breasts will increase in size and may become tender. (D) Abdominal pain may be an indication of early spontaneous abortion, preterm delivery, or a placental abruption.
NEW QUESTION # 823
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