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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Threat Detection and Response | - Automated response actions and remediation - Incident detection and alert handling |
| Topic 2: Installation and Deployment | - Agent deployment and onboarding - Server and console installation requirements |
| Topic 3: System Administration and Troubleshooting | - System monitoring and health checks - Troubleshooting common FortiEDR issues |
| Topic 4: Forensics and Investigation | - Endpoint investigation workflows - Event analysis and telemetry review |
| Topic 5: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | - FortiEDR components overview (agents, management console, collectors) - System architecture and deployment models |
| Topic 6: Policy Configuration and Management | - Policy tuning and exclusions - Prevention and detection policies |
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NEW QUESTION # 30
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the incident details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this incident are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows an audit/response action stating that IP address 74.125.235.20 was added to malicious IP addresses on firewall FortiGate . This matches the FortiEDR playbook action Block address on Firewall .
The guide states that this action ensures connections to remote malicious addresses associated with the security event are blocked, and that a firewall connector must already be configured for this action. It also explains that a checkmark in a classification column means communication with the affected destination is automatically blocked when a security event with that classification is triggered.
Option C is the second best answer because FortiEDR events are initially classified by FortiEDR detection logic/Core, and the guide states that classifications are initially determined by the Core but can later be changed automatically by FortiEDR Cloud Service or manually. The exhibit shows "Classification Changed To: Suspicious (By Fortinet)" , but it does not say the event was manually classified by an administrator. So the event classification process is FortiEDR-driven, with later Fortinet/FCS-style automatic classification possible.
Option B is wrong. The exhibit shows one raw-data row with device cwinserv-32 +2 , which indicates more than one affected device/raw item is represented in the aggregation. So it did not occur on only one device.
Option D is wrong because the incident rows clearly show Unhandled . The guide states that security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and the unread/unhandled status helps users track whether anyone has read and handled the event.
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NEW QUESTION # 31
Which two statements correctly describe the IoT probing process on FortiEDR? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address .
This directly supports option B .
Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.
Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.
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NEW QUESTION # 32
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 34
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization .
The key point is that Communication Control is not available in Hoster view . In a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment, Hoster view is the view used to display information for all organizations together. However, the guide clearly states under the Hoster view section: "Communication Control - The Communication Control window is not available in Hoster view." That means you cannot create one global Communication Control policy from Hoster view and assign it across all organizations. Options B , C , and D all assume cross-organization/global Communication Control policy assignment, but the guide does not support that capability. The practical recommendation is to configure Communication Control policies separately inside each organization.
The guide contrasts this with Security Policies, where in Hoster view the Security Policies page displays all policies from all organizations and supports cloning a security policy from one organization to another. That statement is for Security Policies , not Communication Control policies.
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NEW QUESTION # 35
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